V1 is by all impressions a very competent and adept player. LAG pre, cbets frequently, fairly straight-forward post but can be somewhat sticky. stack is $3500.
V2 is loose-passive and is largely inconsequential, $200 stack.
Hero's image is NITish, V1 views me as a competent player who is unlikely to get out of line. $400 stack.
Pre: V1 opens UTG to 13, V2 calls, Hero makes it 40 w/ Q
Q
.
Folds to V1 who calls, V2 folds.
My read on V1 is that he is calling purely for speculative purposes/implied odds.
Flop: 8
6
4
($91)
V checks, Hero bets $65.
V raises to $185, Hero....?
My thoughts in the moment were that the bottom of Vs range is Ax of spades. He was aggressive but rarely raised w/o good equity. After the hand I discussed it with him and he said he would have called, that the hand played itself. I have been often wondering and occasionally faced with these circumstances: An overpair in the hole on a low wet board w/ heavy action.
Most player's responses are very definitive, either "small hand, small pot" OR "He has so many draws in his range, GII"
Every hand is specifically unique as is every V but just looking for some guidance in finding the "right" answer as opposed to the results oriented one.
Thanks