Game: 1/3 game. V is the straddler in this hand for 6 dollars. Me and him have been playing pot after pot against each other he called a PFR from me with 5 7 off suit UTG+2 for 15 bucks.

V: tilted. Playing a lag style. Just lost a buy in and rebought for 300 and is playing roughly 40% of hands. Is straddling this hand.

H: only has 200 my image is a standard rec player. Folds to aggression too much probably (overall this was a tough table thought about getting a table change)

OTTH:

H is UTG and has 2 black kings. Raises to 20. UTG+1 calls folds to V in the straddle and grunch calls.

Flop (64)

Q 7 3 all spades. V bets 50. I just call. ( thought about raising but planned to GII on the turn).

Turn (110)

Ace of clubs. V bets enough to put me all in. i have roughly 130 left and the pot is 240? Hero should.....

Raise flop all in. But on turn, if this guy is laggy and you've been folding a lot to agression then have to call.

jamming flop is best play - Turn card sucks - you can probably fold unless he is crazy

With flush outs and set outs you already have 20% when villain doesn't have ace of spades. Poster already said guy is laggy, tilting, and playing a wide range...there's no good reason to think villain's range is that narrow. So you only need to be good somewhere around 15% of the time to make up the rest. Based on the poster's description, folding leaves money on the table.

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Please keep giving feedback this hand is bothering me!

EDIT ABOVE: Realize you only need 25% equity. I'm definitely calling, although I'm still not happy about it. If you can't call turn against this player, jam the flop.



Actually closer than I thought, but add in some other hands and it becomes an easier call.

BTW, does anyone know of a better poker equity/range calc for android? The pokerstove app would be my choice but is no bueno.


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I think poker cruncher is now available for android. It's the nuts on iPhone.


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With this small a stack I'm fine with just opening to setup a trivial stackoff SPR postflop. I'd still open for more with a straddle on just to make it that much easier, especially since we know Villain ain't folding. I also think limp/reraising is fine (although with this small stack I think ABC is a better line).

I'm either/or on the flop. We're obviously committed and not going anywhere. I'd probably look at my cards as if doing a spade check and then shove. Highly unlikely Qx is going to fold now and a flush draw isn't going to fold either, so let's get this done before either of these hands can fold. If the SPR was much higher (especially one where we don't feel committed) then much more warrant in just flatting here.

Admittedly very ugly turn card, but against a tilting Villain I'm probably getting it in.

GcluelessNLnoobG

Shove flop. Tilted V isn't folding for another $130.

Raise more pre. You can get away with it since UTG + straddled pot. You have an SPR of 3. Reraise all in on the flop. Flat-calling is gross with three spades. Call the turn. If villain is LAG you're ahead often enough and you have good pot odds. AQ is a likely hand but you'll run into KQ, QJ, QT, Q9, Q8, plus random bluffs and semi-bluffs.

I actually disagree with people saying shove flop. We have a tilted villain so if he's going to bluff too much we want to keep his bluffs alive.

Ace on the turn really doesn't change that much. His bluffs that have an ace got ahead but if we think he's betting flop wth a huge range then the ace doesn't matter a ton. I call and expect he just had a queen a ton of the time. I'm definitely not fistpumping and celebrating but it's a call.

Just rip it in on the flop.

^^^ His most likely bluffing candidate is As, and he's not folding that vs a jam

Did you check the flop?

V is probably calling pre-flop with all Aces if he's playing 40%. His continuing range on the flop is mostly spades, Qs, 7s, Aces, and random bluffs (say he starts with like 40% and bets half that on the flop). Aces make up literally half that range. He has an Ace a LOT but there are enough Qs betting the turn it's probably still a call given pot odds, particularly if this villain can fire double barrel bluffs, but I agree it's not a great spot to be in. Getting it in on the flop is much better IMO.

Ha. Just noticed that. Maybe villain straddled from the blinds lol.

You guys really couldn't figure out when hero says UTG, he means first to act after the straddle? Or are you just trying to be annoying?

Everything comes to him who knows how to wait. It’s not very difficult to win a session: what is difficult is to win a campaign for a month. And for that it’s not storming and attacking that are wanted, but patience and time. There is no more powerful adversary than those two: patience and time— they will do it all.

I'll say GII on the flop as well.

Easy to get called to by worse, especially when on tilt.

Probably easier than it is to have worse continue to value with worse or bluff on the turn. People give up faster on scary boards. The worse hands which would barrel here are also calling a jam.

It's not clear, particularly given the flop and turn action seems to imply hero is in position.

Flop: "Q 7 3 all spades. V bets 50. I just call"

Turn: "Ace of clubs. V bets enough to put me all in"

There's no mention of hero checking in either spot. So no, not trying to be annoying. It's just not at all clear who has position.

Right, hero is in position because he is to the left of the straddler.

Anyway, this is a clear shove for all the reasons others have stated unless you are sure the villain is going to shove the turn no matter what the card is and is less likely to call a shove by you on the flop if he's behind (which reads don't suggest)

Why would we assume villain is UTG when you said YOU are UTG and lots of people straddle the button. The way you wrote it it looks like YOU raised UTG, UTG+1 called and then the straddler called from the button after straddling the button. When asked for clarification, you accuse us of being annoying? SMH

I'm not the original poster, relax.

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Ok, settle down everyone.

As for the hand, he needs to be bluffing 36% of the time to make calling BE. I've seen people tilted enough to do this, but really this is more of a read thing. Be nice to know if this was hand 1 after the rebuy or the rebuy was an hour ago.

It looks like hero is in position post-flop but he's UTG. Unless the guy straddled from the blinds I don't get it. Anyway don't blame people trying to help because OP wrote a confusing post.

How do you figure he needs to be bluffing 36%? Not saying you're wrong but I'd like to see what range you think villain could have here pre-flop vs. his range on the turn to justify this.

Guess I'll try to figure this out. I would guess if he's playing 40% of his hands and 3-bets {99+, AK}, then his pre-flop calling range is something like

37.87% with card removal: {88-22, AQs-A2s, K2s+, Q4s+, J7s+, T7s+, 97s+, 86s+, 75s+, 65s, 54s, AQo-A2o, K7o+, Q8o+, J9o+, T9o, 98o, 87o, 76o}

If he bets a bit over half the time on the flop when checked to (let's say he bets 88, 77, 33, Q's, 7s, spades, and As), then after the flop bet this is likely something like

24.64% with card removal (255/1035): {88-77, 33, AQs-A2s, KQs, K7s, Q4s+, J7s, T7s, 97s, 87s, 75s+, KsJs, KsTs, JsTs, Ks9s, Js9s, Ts9s, Ks8s, Js8s, Ts8s, 9s8s, Ks6s, 8s6s, Ks5s, 6s5s, Ks4s, 5s4s, Ks3s, Ks2s, AQo-A2o, KQo, Q8o+, 87o, 76o}

On the turn he likely bets As, Qs, 77, 33, and spades, which looks like

21.16% with card removal (219/1035): {88,7d7h,7d7c,7h7c,3d3h,3d3c,3h3c,AdQd,AhQh,KcQc,A dJd,AhJh,AsJs,KsJs,QdJd,QhJh,QcJc,AdTd,AhTh,AsTs,K sTs,QdTd,QhTh,QcTc,JsTs,Ad9d,Ah9h,As9s,Ks9s,Qd9d,Q h9h,Qc9c,Js9s,Ts9s,Ad8d,Ah8h,As8s,Ks8s,Qd8d,Qh8h,Q c8c,Js8s,Ts8s,9s8s,Ad7d,Ah7h,Kc7c,Qd7d,Qh7h,Qc7c,A d6d,Ah6h,As6s,Ks6s,Qd6d,Qh6h,Qc6c,8s6s,Ad5d,Ah5h,A s5s,Ks5s,Qd5d,Qh5h,Qc5c,6s5s,Ad4d,Ah4h,As4s,Ks4s,Q d4d,Qh4h,Qc4c,5s4s,Ad3d,Ah3h,Ad2d,Ah2h,As2s,Ks2s,A dQh,AdQc,AhQd,AhQc,AsQd,AsQh,AsQc,AdJh,AdJs,AdJc,A hJd,AhJs,AhJc,AsJd,AsJh,AsJc,AdTh,AdTs,AdTc,AhTd,A hTs,AhTc,AsTd,AsTh,AsTc,Ad9h,Ad9s,Ad9c,Ah9d,Ah9s,A h9c,As9d,As9h,As9c,Ad8h,Ad8s,Ad8c,Ah8d,Ah8s,Ah8c,A s8d,As8h,As8c,Ad7h,Ad7c,Ah7d,Ah7c,As7d,As7h,As7c,A d6h,Ad6s,Ad6c,Ah6d,Ah6s,Ah6c,As6d,As6h,As6c,Ad5h,A d5s,Ad5c,Ah5d,Ah5s,Ah5c,As5d,As5h,As5c,Ad4h,Ad4s,A d4c,Ah4d,Ah4s,Ah4c,As4d,As4h,As4c,Ad3h,Ad3c,Ah3d,A h3c,As3d,As3h,As3c,Ad2h,Ad2s,Ad2c,Ah2d,Ah2s,Ah2c,A s2d,As2h,As2c,KsQd,KsQh,KsQc,KcQd,KcQh,QdJh,QdJs,Q dJc,QhJd,QhJs,QhJc,QcJd,QcJh,QcJs,QdTh,QdTs,QdTc,Q hTd,QhTs,QhTc,QcTd,QcTh,QcTs,Qd9h,Qd9s,Qd9c,Qh9d,Q h9s,Qh9c,Qc9d,Qc9h,Qc9s,Qd8h,Qd8s,Qd8c,Qh8d,Qh8s,Q h8c,Qc8d,Qc8h,Qc8s}

Our equity against this range is 29.31%

EV(call) = P(win)*240 - P(lose)*130

EV(call) = .2931*240 - .7069*130

EV(call) = -21.53

So with all these range assumptions it's a bad call if villain doesn't bluff the turn. We need

0 < EV(call) so set

0 < P(bluff)*240 + (1-P(Bluff))(P(win)*240 - P(lose)*130)

0 < P(bluff)*240 + (1-P(Bluff))(-21.53)

Solving for P(bluff) we get P(bluff) > .082

With these assumptions, which may be way off, he doesn't need to bluff the turn all that often to make calling okay.

If we remove the Qs from villain's turn betting range we have P(lose) = .9259 and P(win) = .082, so P(bluff) > .299

So it becomes much more questionable. Note my initial assumptions of villain's range and flop-betting range could be off, but regardless he has to bluffing at least somewhat often on the turn to justify a call.

I'm no longer convinced this is an easy call, unless we know villain bluffs a lot.