1/2 at the Byke.
Villain 1, on the CO, is a LAG almost maniacal guy, playing every hand and getting the goods, like playing 9 and 4 and turning boat, and that kind of stuff. Plays EVERY hand, bets scare cards, his draws and his small pairs, even if is out there a straight or flush or two over cards. Incredible how he plays, how hot he ran. Has around 600 in front of him.
Villain 2, on the hijack, is a shorstacker (60~) playing goods only and going all in often, as well folding a lot. Kinda Tight Passive
Hero has 220~ in front of him. Has ran hot too, getting twice AA, good cards and good flops, was out flopped by the villain1 in a previous hand, with AQ in a flop Q53 and the villain had 53 for two pairs. After that I reloaded and ran good and not playing many hands, and at some point haven't been paid off his stuff because people fold to him a lot. I haven't been out of line so far in this session. I'm in the BB with A
3
Fold to the Villain2 who limps and Villain1 raises to 6. Fold to me and I decided to call -first time out of line, but because the villain is in the hand, I decided not to fold my blinds.
(Is this a mistake?) Villain2 calls; he could have gone allin as he has done, but he don't do that when villain1 is in the hands he plays.
Flop (15~ after rake) the beautiful and terrifying 2
4
5
At this point I think if I bet, they might fold, and if somebody have actually the spades, I'm f'd. So, I check.
Villain2 bets 10. I think that bet is a good sign, if he had the flush, he could have gone all in or check. Betting meaning two over cards, an overpair, two pairs, a set or TP with top kicker but different suit.
(Thoughts about this?)
Villain1 raises to 30. I think he's betting an A
Xx, two pairs, or top pair with some spade, or even the SD like a 6x7x, or Ax6x; of course, there is some air too, but why do that with the short stack right there?
(Thoughts?)
Hero?
Last edited by DPCharly; 04-09-2015 at 08:25 PM.
Reason: Better exposition