Quote:
Originally Posted by ChrisV
V1 is irrelevant because in the case where we win, we're operating under the assumption that V2 isn't even considering that he might be overflushed. Also, it's obvious that V1 doesn't have a flush looking at his line in totality - i.e. a nit raising in EP but then not betting the ace flop, meaning he can't have like AQss (not to mention that he doesn't shove river).
Are we ever expecting V1 to have a lower flush here? it would take out lower flush combos that V2 jams.
Someone else pointed out that V2 could have 98ss, 97ss, 96ss (maybe?), 78ss, 86ss, 67ss, 34ss that we beat. We are beat by A9ss, A8ss, A7ss, A6ss, A4ss (very unlikely since flopped checked through) A3ss and A2ss. So let's say 6 combos that he jams 100% of the time (if we discard A4ss) and 7 that we beat, but of those 7 how many are jamming river? Are we good 25% of the time? I think it's pretty close actually this is why I think it's an interesting spot!
Also this is just considering V2's ''perceived'' value range. Maybe he turns AsX into a bluff here but I would be shocked if this guy is even thinking about this.