Villain: late 40s - early 50s asian man; has been active in a bunch of spots but has shown willingness to fold top pair which I see as bluffable ($300)
Hero: mid 20s asian man; been card dead so table image is nitty ($225)
One limper in EP hero over limps A
3
in CO. Villain raises to $13 in BB. EP folds hero calls.
Flop: T
3
2
($29)
Villain checks, hero bets $20. Villain raises to $50.
At this point I'm a little suspicious. Why would villain play overpairs this way? Really looks like a flush draw or random spazz. Could be a set, but he'd probably take a free flop with 22/33 so only set he could have is TT. I hollywood a little bit acting like I'm debating a fold. Then stack all my chips together and look at him. "You have a set?" I asked, then moved all in.
I figured I could fold out all his air to collect the dead money, maybe his non-nut flush draws and some weirdly played top pair type hands. My line really looks like 22/33 and if called by anything other than TT I have up to five outs and a backdoor wheel draw. Spew or not?