Hey all, first time posting a hand here so bare with me. This is a 6-12 hand from the Oaks a couple nights ago, trying to remember the action as best I can...
V1 - darker skinned man of unknown descent in his 20s. He is playing very loose, mostly passive but has shown some spurts of aggression and at least one straight up river bluff. He is sitting directly to my left and smells like he smoked a large quantity of weed before this session.
V2 - Asian man in his 50s. Had not played with him long, seemed to playing tightish with unknown levels of aggression. He was talking about the new 20-40 game arriving on Monday, and sounded like he usually plays higher fwiw.
UTG+1 limps, I limp next with A
3
, V1 limps next, V2 raises next, button calls, big blind calls, UTG+1 calls and I call. Six to the flop.
FLOP: AJ8 with two clubs and the 8 is a diamond.
Checks to me, I check, V1 checks, V2 bets, big blind folds and the rest call. Five to the turn.
TURN: 8 of clubs (3 clubs now)
Checked to me, I check, now V1 bets, V2 calls, button calls, utg+1 folds, I fold...
So yea you can probably guess how this turned out. At the time I felt I needed an A or 8 on the river just to chop and wasn't getting the right price. Had a weak-tight player bet the turn, I think I could have comfortably folded? But against V1s description, closing the action, this was an awful fold.. confirm?
Also curious about the flop. Should we just bet here? Typically, with Ace no kicker and a preflop raiser, I go into check/call mode. Especially with a pair of Aces, in case it checks around im not worried about someone with naked overs spiking, who wouldn't have seen the turn otherwise. Had I bet though, I would have had a better idea where I was at based of if V2 called or raised.. confirm?
Thanks in advance for your responses.