Hand 1:
4 limpers, we're on the button with A
A
and we raise. BB and all limpers call.
6.5bb, 6 players, flop is 9
7
3
BB bets, first limper raises, one fold, 2 coldcalls. 9.75bb at the decision point.
Hand 2:
1 limper, we're in MP with A
A
and we raise. 2 coldcallers, SB folds, BB 3!, limper calls, we cap, everyone calls.
10.25 bb, 5 players, flop is Q
9
9
BB bets, limper raises. 11.75bb at decision point.
The book recommends 3!ing hand 1 but flatting hand 2. The book referred to the board in hand 2 as "scary", but personally, I find the board in hand 1 scarier than the one in hand 2 because there are more cards that could actually CONNECT with the board in hand 1. We have backdoor nut flush draws in both hands. We beat any two pair hand in hand 2 - we're vulnerable to 2 pair in hand 1.
It looks to me like the only difference between the two hands is that in hand 2 there's a realistic chance of facing the field with having to call two big bets cold on the turn. No such realistic chance exists in hand 1.
I guess another difference is in hand 2, a reraise would face 2 villains with having to call 3 bets cold. In hand 1, a reraise will cause 1 villain to call 2 bets cold but everyone else will only have to call 1. I'm not sure that makes much difference though. In hand 2 I think I'd still rather face 3 villains with having to call 2 big bets cold.
In short, in hand 1 it seems we have no opportunity to meaningfully protect our hand and we have a significant pot equity edge, so we might as well take their money on the flop, but in hand 2, we will have an opportunity to exploit a bigger edge on the turn by passing up an edge on the flop.
Am I missing anything?
Last edited by DalTXColtsFan; 03-25-2024 at 12:58 PM.