You're getting 6:1 to call the all-in, how can you fold here?
Neither one of their lines is congruent with a higher set. Just look through the hand. It should be pretty obvious.
Quote:
Hero (2200) Straddles the button for $20.
Villain I (1600) in SB calls $20
Villain II (2500) in BB raises $80
UTG calls, Hero calls, SB calls.
Flop Q107 ($320)
Villain I checks
Villain II leads out $300
UTG folds
Hero calls $300.
Villain I calls $300.
Is Villain 1 really check/calling here with a higher set when he can simply raise and get his entire stack in? With a set and the option to go all-in on the flop, why would he instead wait to see the turn? That doesn't make sense.
Villain 1 does not have a set.
What about villain 2?
Quote:
Turn 4($1220)
Villain I checks.
Villain II bets out $500
Hero Calls $500.
Villain I re-raises all in to $1220.
Villian II calls the allin.
Villain 2 bets 40% pot here at SPR 1.5 on one of the best turns possible for a set. Why would he do this with a set? Well, he wouldn't because it makes no sense. If he had a set, he would pot it.
Then when Villain 1 goes all-in, Villain 2 elects to just call instead of going all-in. This is clearly indicative of a draw and not a set.
Villain 2 does not have a set.
In the hand, both villains basically announced that they didn't have a higher set and that 77 was the effective nuts, and somehow you managed to ignore this and fold the effective nuts getting 6:1.
Your turn fold was terrible. I'm sorry, but there's really no way to put it gently.
As to how to play the hand, after Villain 2 bet $500 on the turn, you already have enough information to know that your hand is best and so you should've just jammed yourself instead of calling and giving both players a chance to draw cheaply.