8 handed 2/2 game at casino. $5 button straddle in effect about half of the hands. Generally a bunch of dopes playing. I'm relatively new to PLO, but way better than most of the 'regs' at this table.
Me - lojack - about $550. Max buyin $500, I'm in for $900 as I am pretty flop dead, lost a big hand with flopped broadway plus NF draw, lose to boat on river. Image probably pretty tight compared to the dummies.
hijack - rec player known to gamble, has rebought a few times, has me covered with around $600-650
SB - weird guy who keeps buying in short and pumping up the action preflop. Has had no luck to this point.. sitting on about 90-100
BB - boring human, can't say much about him besides he wasn't very good. "liked to see flops" like all the other dudes. Had $250ish
OTTH: Goofy old guy to my right makes it $10 after a limper. I have A
A
K
5
... I raise pot to $36. HJ calls, then SB does dumb raise to $66, leaving him about $30 behind. BB calls. Old guy calls. I raise pot to (I think) about $335. HJ/gambler pauses but he clearly wants to see a flop and calls. SB obv calls all-in for his tiny stack, then BB also calls all-in.
**my main question, as someone who generally avoids small edge/high variance plays** - was my play standard? Or should we only be 4 or 5-betting preflop with the more valuable AA hands... suited aces or all broadway cards, etc... I was thinking that my giant raise to over $300 would push out the HJ and I'd be all-in 3 ways, but he called (I wasn't shocked, but mildly surprised)
Flop (about $1000): 4
5
6
*question 2* - while not a 'good flop' for my hand, I have to shove my remaining $200ish in correct?
Thanks