Hero: $4K
Hijack: $6K

Hijack is an extremely good loose aggressive regular, who is never calling his stack off without the nuts or an insane nut draw. His bets in multiway pots mostly tend to be capable of standing raises, but of course not always.

Hero in cutoff w/ AA43
2 limps to hero, and hero raises to $100. SB, MP, hijack call.

Flop ($400) 443
Checks to hijack, who bets $200.

Hero?

Hero raises to $760

I consider GII here since I have the nuts now, but don't like seeing any overcards come on the turn, since the only boat redraw I has is if one of the aces spikes. Then again, if V is only betting with a 4, I may miss value by raising flop. Thoughts?

Hijack reraises to $2200

interesting flop decision.
as played easy gii even, you are obv ahead vs 4xxx. 55% vs 43xx and 37,5% vs 435c6c

with a SPR high like that i think i'de rather flat flop. simply due that he should have some bluffs/semibluffs as well.

Go all in. Try not to look too gleeful when villain rolls over 33.

Extremely good lag reg limps hijack...

Flop raise seems really bad (esp with Ac). Too deep, too obv/strong.

Now all in of course

What kinda question is this?lol flopping nuts facing reraise?
Of course you fck1ng ship it..many ship the good for less than that lol

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don't overthink this stuff when villain puts what looks to be a pot committing bet in on the flop vs your nuts.

it'd be different if he put a min raise in or something very small. that's pretty much only time i'd be concerned about varying lines here.

Lots of hands favour being over limped.

so like, is this a brag thread?

I was thinking the same, and that v this particular villain, they are always betting with 4XXX, where XXX are higher side cards at a minimum. I'm leaning towards flatting flop too, to protect my calling range on this board.

I would assume it is more like a beat thread, unless villain folded 33 face up

A good lag isn’t calling with 4 and bunch of random overcards pre. My assumption of his limping late position is 33xx or 4xxx
The obvious question is what are the xxx?
If it’s AkQ4 or AQJ4, Or QJT4 or similar high connecting cards is he would raise these hands some of the time because of their playability. So we can discount these hands some.
We can look at A4s. The only hand that fits is Ad4d. That’s one combo.
My range for villain is 33xx and Ad4dXX which puts you in great shape to gii
The other part of his range is some sort of wrap with a 4 in it, ie 3456, 4567, or A234
Overall against this composite range I would gii here


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I don't think it's correct game theory wise to raise this flop. It nearly never hits your range making this particular combo of 34 an optimal hand to use as a call to protect the weaker hands you'd have in your continuation range such as straight & flush draws or over pairs.

Villain bet 4 ways so we're not going to be continuing too wide anyway unless we percieve villain to go after these type of boards even multi-way.

We can flat every other 4x hand we have (or 44 if somehow we have this) but I think we should 100% be raising here with 43 so that we can get maximum value against other 4x (or 33) hands... 33 ofc is happy to GII now but is not going to be on turns/rivers.

When I was first reading the hand, I missed the very last part w/ villain making it 2200 to go. When he makes it 2200, there is no other option to laugh all the way to the bank (or at least until the turn, if he sucks out).

What is there to discuss? We raised the flop with the nuts and got re-raised, so now let´s just ****ing ship it and print money!

Opponent put 55% of his stack in the middle and you want to call to protect your calling range?Cmon dude.
Just to add if you wanted to protect your calling range you would call when be bets 200 and not raise,cause he is likely to bluff
when you completely crush the board,even having Ac.As played it worked perfectly.

Agreed, my question was moreso whether to raise or flat the initial $200 in order to protect flop calling range. So I think I misplayed this by raising his initial bet.

As played, when he re-raises, we of course GII.

Like which hand examples?

I guess it changes a lot in stakes this high (because the rake is not a huge factor) but I was taught to never limp in because the rake is a huge opponent in my game which is PLO50 - 200 online $3 cap and PLO500 live.

PLO500 live full ring rake is capped at $5.

I never over limp - but should I be? I watch a lot of pros and have paid for training and over limping is defiantly not one of the fundamental strategies.

9 handed game, you have two early position limpers, QQT2 with one suit would be an easy over limp in the HJ, especially if there were no very aggressive players left to act. Big pairs without great side cards are usually over limps, because your hand is basically an implied odds hand where you are trying to flop top set and want to get in as cheaply and have as much company as possible.

Another example, if you are on the button, and you have two very loose limpers in front of you that just called, you should be over limping quite a large number of hands. For example AT56 double suited would be an over limp. Or JJ24 with one suit.

AT56ds on the button is a raise not a limp. Other examples are fine.

i think you're overthinking this. i think the best play is to ship it.

if you want to call because you think you get a random 4 to stack off on the turn, call. but dont fold on any turn card. and he might be more likely to fold 4567 if a Q or K rolls of, so i dont really see the upside.

It's not 2 early position limpers. Mp limped and good aggro reg limped the hijack.

The question is not what to do now, but what to do after the $200 lead by V. Shipping now is obvious.