I purchased a solver to help me with my game, I ran my first hand (CO vs BB on a paired+flush draw flop) and some results were surprising to me.

let me describe the action:
effective stacks ~1000 chips.

CO opens and BB calls.

flop is 8d8h2d.

BB x and CO cbets most of his range of course (33%/50% pot), and BB calls.

Turn is 9s, BB x and in the instance we have QsTs we should be betting 90% pot here 56% of the time, which I could get on board with.

BB calls and the river gets weird.

River is 4s (a brick), and solver says we should jam all in (872 chips 64% of the time).


Shoving 872 chips into a 311 pot 64% of the time? seems like suicide to me on a hand like this. Can anyone explain this please?


Also if you could recommend me different ways to use the solver to study that would be very appreciated. so far I'm just experimenting with spots I was curios about.

Why did you solve a spot using 10 buy-ins effective? Especially all your early solves should be for 100bb effective.

I may be wrong, but I used a 1k starting stack and a 55 flop pot, sort of pretending its 5/10 with a 100BB stacks. Did I configure this wrong?

By the way I also notice this difference here between Js8s and Jc8c that I can't explain, can you?


How do you go about these weird solutions that you don't understand?

Perhaps share both players ranges on the river. IP has a lot of trips. If the solver prefers an overbet shove it likely means IP has a significant nut advantage, so it polarizes hard on the river.

This is a spot where we sometimes shove to get max value on our nutted hands. Because we sometimes shove for value we also sometimes shove as a bluff. The solver thinks this is a good bluff so it shoves it sometimes. Which part are you struggling with?

The difference between clubs and spades probably has to do with small blocker effects that make it more or less likely to get called.

Simplify this spot to "large bet or check". Don't micro-analyze. You're never gonna know the exact frequencies in a real game, you just have to understand that J8 is a big bet here.

Seems reasonable to me.

BB likely has ~0 8x

Blocking T8/Q8s along with not blocking low pairs that get to river and are in ~bluff catch or fold mode seems good

Read it wrong, sorry.

BB has no 8x in his range or BB has no 8x on this river after x/c, x/c, x?

I guess the assumption is that BB would've raised trips earlier, so they're capped here

yep - sounds reasonable :-) thanks

Thanks, that cleared this for me.