What factors do you consider? thanks

Is it just our opening range equity vs villain's calling range equity on a given flop?

mods, kindly move this thread to poker theory section which imo is the appropriate place for this topic

thanks

generally speaking, yes, but there are few additional factors, like how many of the strongest hands each player has on a flop - callers range can have a lot of Ax hands, but he's gonna have very few of the top 2 sets on AK5r

You can run the equities of the ranges (in Equilab, for example) to see who has an overall equity advantage (on most boards in 6-max games when the last aggressor is IP, it's the pre-flop raiser) and then you can do some additional combo-counting to find out who has the "nut advantage".
e.g. On AK2r BTN vs BB in a single-raised pot, the BTN has a clear range advantage, with about 58% equity.
If you then list out the best five (or so) hands possible on that board (AA, KK, 22, AK, A2) you'll find that BTN has all the nut combos, whereas BB can't have AA, KK or AK, so BTN also has a "nut advantage".

If you took an UTG open vs a (tight) BTN flat and board like 974r, it would actually be the BTN whose range has the equity advantage, because UTG has so many ace highs and king highs that completely missed, whereas BTN has 99/77 and other middle pocket pairs, and not much air.

thank you man, it makes so much sense to me now

a) how many strong hands can I bet one street with?
b) how many strong hands can I bet two streets with?
c) how many strong hands can I bet three streets with?

The higher these values, the more likely you are to have a significant advantage.