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Originally Posted by Manko898
In general, on the flop how much of an equity lead would you say constitutes a range advantage?
Just going to be real technical and say 51% is a "range advantage".
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For range betting on the flop what kind of equity lead would you say is sufficient?
Tough to say as positional advantage and nuttedness (who has the nuts more often) are also significant. Maybe a phrase like "situational advantage" would be more accurate to describe who has more realization-adjusted equity. Obviously this isn't something humans can calculate and at the moment I'm very skeptical that so called solvers can do it either. My guess though is that even with a range disadvantage you should still sometimes be leading flops. Its just the higher your situational advantage the more you should do it. If you have position, the flop is AK5, and you're the 3bettor preflop its very clear you should be cbetting well over 50%.
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What would you consider this situation: OOP and you have an equity advantage with initiative, but Villain has more two pairs, top pairs, and nutty draw combos. Is this a bad spot OOP facing a semi capped range with good value and bluffs? Or a neutral spot; or, does Hero's equity lead still constitute a range advantage, and he should bet the flop often?
Again, its really unclear, range advantage may be a wash with nuttedness and position and it might not be. Clearest example of this conflict is something that comes up every session in PLO when you 3bet someone out of position with AAxx. On non-ace flops, you still might have an equity advantage when you run likely ranges through a calc, but its clear that your having ace ace a lot more often blocks you from having 2pair and top sets as much. Some players feel this effect is so great that they'll refrain from 3betting aces OOP unless they're up against short stacks or if its double-suited.
