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Old 11-10-2012, 01:25 AM   #1
Bocavi
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calling range versus a static mp range

lets say the villain is a robot programmed with a mp range that is static is consist of 22+,ATs+,KTs+,QTs+,JTs,T9s,AJo+,KJo+,QJo

I stoved a calling range of each hand individually and got the following calling range that has greater than 50% equity versus the villain entire mp range and got the following hands JJ-88,AQs-AJs,AQo.

Assuming you didnt know this opponent post flop tendencies would you every deviate for this range if you know far a fact that this villain range will always be the same if so why ?

the purpose of this is that I would to develop call ranges based on the opponents opening ranges and when i eventually get a feel for their tendencies with the their ranges I might opening up my calling range with hands that are slightly -ev such as smaller pp n suited connectors etc with these hands the villain tendeny with make me know if I have the implied odds n if it is profitable or maybe I am just saying rubbish ?

Last edited by Bocavi; 11-10-2012 at 01:30 AM.
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Old 11-10-2012, 02:35 AM   #2
Aesah
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Re: calling range versus a static mp range

Quote:
Originally Posted by Bocavi View Post
when i eventually get a feel for their tendencies with the their ranges I might opening up my calling range with hands that are slightly -ev
Sure, for an extreme example, if villain shoves his entire range for 200bb on the flop, you can obviously see it is profitable to flat a 3bb open with ATC.

As a realistic example, there are live players, usually older guys, who will only raise AA/KK to 5bb (they limp QQ, AK) and will stackoff 100bb on nearly any board so you can easily flat pocket pairs profitably against them even though you only have 20% equity vs their range.
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