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(Average) rake percentage/hand (Average) rake percentage/hand

09-16-2017 , 04:02 PM
Hi All,

How much does rake affects our preflop range?

I have read that we have to adjust our range significantly, but it wasn't substantiated with beautiful statistics, so how significantly are these adjustments?

1. Is it possible to calculate the average rake (%) per hand we (could) face when we RFI?
2. Can we make a estimated calculation of this by using the information provided by poker-sites, or is the only way using f.e. HEM?
3. Do we subtract this percentage from the blinds, so when we RFI f.e. we invest 3bb to win 1.3bb? (instead of 1.5, because of the rake)

with regards,

Johan
(Average) rake percentage/hand Quote
09-16-2017 , 04:22 PM
Just look at your database, filter for position and hands if you want and look how many bb/100 you paid in rake. Devide by 100 and there is your answer.

As for pokersites giving you this information, will never happen.
(Average) rake percentage/hand Quote
09-16-2017 , 08:06 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Kelvis
Just look at your database, filter for position and hands if you want and look how many bb/100 you paid in rake. Devide by 100 and there is your answer.

As for pokersites giving you this information, will never happen.
I can look in my HEM, but then rake depends on the style of the player, isn't it?

I was hoping for a more detailed explanation.

What if there where optimal playing bots in a 6-max raked game.

- Does the optimal game start preflop by subtracting a percentage of the blinds, by how much?
- How much does this affects the preflop ranges, relative to a rake-free game?

with regards,

Johan
(Average) rake percentage/hand Quote
09-18-2017 , 07:21 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by TH3CLOWN
I can look in my HEM, but then rake depends on the style of the player, isn't it?
Isn't knowing the average rake you pay better than knowing the average rake for all players?

Quote:
Originally Posted by TH3CLOWN
I was hoping for a more detailed explanation.

What if there where optimal playing bots in a 6-max raked game.

- Does the optimal game start preflop by subtracting a percentage of the blinds, by how much?
That wouldn't make much sense since in large enough pots rake can exceed the size of the original blinds. But yes if are looking at a spot you can subtract rake and use that potsize to make your decisions.

Quote:
Originally Posted by TH3CLOWN
- How much does this affects the preflop ranges, relative to a rake-free game?
It just forces you to fold more hands that are on the margins. If your average rake is R and you found that a hand's EV is lower than R from your position you would prefer to fold rather than play.

There is probably no analytical way to do this you would have to have solvers that adjusted for rake. I think some of them do that but not 100% sure.
(Average) rake percentage/hand Quote

      
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