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Why this solver suggest me to 4BET with a hand that have 0 EV? Why this solver suggest me to 4BET with a hand that have 0 EV?

12-29-2021 , 01:52 PM
guys this is a pretty commom spot preflop, is UTG vs BTN 3Bet, however when I was checking the EV of the hands of this range on gtowizard I notice that there's some hands that have 0 equity and the solver tells you should 4bet with those hands like for example KJs and KTs.

my question is: what reason makes the solver believe that is profitable to 4bet this hands? it is to balance my range so my game doesn't become too much obvious for the other player while on the other hand I'm not losing money doing it because the hand is 0 EV?



another question, why 33 pocket pair have 0.06 EV while TT just have 0 EV? for what reason would make 33 more profitable to call then TT? something related with 33 playability postflop when hits a set against the BTN range? I just don't get it.
Why this solver suggest me to 4BET with a hand that have 0 EV? Quote
12-29-2021 , 02:18 PM
That's not equity, that's EV. You can't have 0 equity preflop.

Folding is 0 EV, so naturally if raising also is, you will be indifferent between the two.

With those hands the main reason is blockers and equity vs the calling range
Why this solver suggest me to 4BET with a hand that have 0 EV? Quote
12-29-2021 , 10:00 PM
Quote:
my question is: what reason makes the solver believe that is profitable to 4bet this hands? it is to balance my range so my game doesn't become too much obvious for the other player while on the other hand I'm not losing money doing it because the hand is 0 EV?
If you never bluff then villain can tighten up significantly, which decreases the EV of your nutted hands. Those 0EV hands are "indifferent" to raising and folding. The solver uses some 0EV hands as 4bets in order to balance its range. Hands like KJs/KTs/A5s have good blockers and reasonable playability postflop.

You could ask the same question postflop. Why does the solver bet the river with 0EV hands? Well, if it stops bluffing the river then it stops getting called and can't get paid off with the value hands.

Quote:
another question, why 33 pocket pair have 0.06 EV while TT just have 0 EV? for what reason would make 33 more profitable to call then TT? something related with 33 playability postflop when hits a set against the BTN range? I just don't get it.
UTG only opens a small amount of 33 to begin with. The reason 33 might be slightly more valuable than other middling pocket pairs is probably because it's more disguised when it makes a set or straight postflop. In general, cards that are underrepresented in your range tend to overperform slightly. 33 makes up the only hand with a 3 in UTG's calling range.
Why this solver suggest me to 4BET with a hand that have 0 EV? Quote
01-11-2022 , 07:45 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by aner0
That's not equity, that's EV. You can't have 0 equity preflop.

Folding is 0 EV, so naturally if raising also is, you will be indifferent between the two.

With those hands the main reason is blockers and equity vs the calling range
I thought on EV and wrote equity, my bad.

Thanks for the explanation

Quote:
Originally Posted by GTOWizard
If you never bluff then villain can tighten up significantly, which decreases the EV of your nutted hands. Those 0EV hands are "indifferent" to raising and folding. The solver uses some 0EV hands as 4bets in order to balance its range. Hands like KJs/KTs/A5s have good blockers and reasonable playability postflop.

You could ask the same question postflop. Why does the solver bet the river with 0EV hands? Well, if it stops bluffing the river then it stops getting called and can't get paid off with the value hands.



UTG only opens a small amount of 33 to begin with. The reason 33 might be slightly more valuable than other middling pocket pairs is probably because it's more disguised when it makes a set or straight postflop. In general, cards that are underrepresented in your range tend to overperform slightly. 33 makes up the only hand with a 3 in UTG's calling range.
things make more sense now, you explained everything perfectly. much appretiated
Why this solver suggest me to 4BET with a hand that have 0 EV? Quote
01-12-2022 , 07:16 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by GTOWizard
If you never bluff then villain can tighten up significantly, which decreases the EV of your nutted hands. Those 0EV hands are "indifferent" to raising and folding. The solver uses some 0EV hands as 4bets in order to balance its range. Hands like KJs/KTs/A5s have good blockers and reasonable playability postflop.

You could ask the same question postflop. Why does the solver bet the river with 0EV hands? Well, if it stops bluffing the river then it stops getting called and can't get paid off with the value hands.



UTG only opens a small amount of 33 to begin with. The reason 33 might be slightly more valuable than other middling pocket pairs is probably because it's more disguised when it makes a set or straight postflop. In general, cards that are underrepresented in your range tend to overperform slightly. 33 makes up the only hand with a 3 in UTG's calling range.
I was wondering about the 33 hand. Is the fact 3bettor has such a low proportion of 3X hands in range (and therefore a 3 is more likely to come otf) part of the reason for the EV difference with other pp, or is it just due to the fact it's more disguised?
Why this solver suggest me to 4BET with a hand that have 0 EV? Quote

      
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