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my question is: what reason makes the solver believe that is profitable to 4bet this hands? it is to balance my range so my game doesn't become too much obvious for the other player while on the other hand I'm not losing money doing it because the hand is 0 EV?
If you never bluff then villain can tighten up significantly, which decreases the EV of your nutted hands. Those 0EV hands are "indifferent" to raising and folding. The solver uses some 0EV hands as 4bets in order to balance its range. Hands like KJs/KTs/A5s have good blockers and reasonable playability postflop.
You could ask the same question postflop. Why does the solver bet the river with 0EV hands? Well, if it stops bluffing the river then it stops getting called and can't get paid off with the value hands.
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another question, why 33 pocket pair have 0.06 EV while TT just have 0 EV? for what reason would make 33 more profitable to call then TT? something related with 33 playability postflop when hits a set against the BTN range? I just don't get it.
UTG only opens a small amount of 33 to begin with. The reason 33 might be slightly more valuable than other middling pocket pairs is probably because it's more disguised when it makes a set or straight postflop. In general, cards that are underrepresented in your range tend to overperform slightly. 33 makes up the only hand with a 3 in UTG's calling range.