Hey, i am somewhat newish to poker and studying.
Decided to do some gtowizard practice trainer runs today for standard BTN vs BB 2.5x SRP
Why does the solver prefer overbetting on the flop here? Tried to figure this out on my own and also did some digging on 2+2 and couldn't find an answer. This flop gives us an advantage as our range is uncapped and contains more Ax and Kx than Villain, so a standard range bet would suffice? Even something like Q2s is high frequency overbet.
Maybe i am missing something and this is very obvious.
Last edited by LexiiLV; 10-27-2022 at 07:05 PM.