Quote:
Originally Posted by 2After909
Under the premise that pathological gambling is a sin, aren't poker players sinners? After all, problem gamblers can be found at the tables. By playing with them, you are providing them with their fix--it's like selling heroin to a junkie.
Does anyone disagree with my logic?
(Of course, you could disagree with my premise as well. However, the premise seems standard--I browsed a number of Christian websites prior to making this thread and they all come to the conclusion that problem gambling is a sin.)
I see, you want to know whether your logic is rigorous.
Well, it is my understanding that if you have A as a premise and you then conclude that A is A you haven't engaged in anything other than restating your premise as a conclusion.
Thus, if the premise is that gambling is a sin, then, gambling is a sin. A = A.
Looks good to me.
Are you looking for logical inconsistencies in antigambling forces arguments?
EDIT: oh, I'm sorry. You are saying "if pathological gambling is a sin" then is non-pathological gambling a sin too?
But you are saying that "pathological gambling" is in addition to being a sin , an illness. Otherwise you wouldn't have made the effort to call it "pathological."
Recapping
A= Pathological gambling
B= Regular gambling
C= Sin
A = C, B = C
If Pathological gambling is a sin than providing a poker game enables the commission of the sin. But providing that poker game does not enable the commision of the sin for regular gambling. Unless, we assume that ALL GAMBLING is a sin which again would be a premise and not concluded from the scenario.
Just like providing an All You can eat buffet enables Gluttony. But non-gluttons do not commit a sin when they buy their food at that same All You Can Eat.
Last edited by Akileos; 05-20-2010 at 06:07 PM.