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Originally Posted by efdrummer89
As far your stance that that the sentence "Moral relativists believe there are no moral absolutes." is not a moral absolute, its obvious that it is. You are claiming that just because the subject matter is moral absolutes does not make it a moral absolute, is a major fallacy and does not make sense at all.
You have said this a couple times. I would appreciate an explanation as to why this is true as opposed to simply asserting it.
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The belief "There are no apples." (forgive me for the poor example) is an absolute about apples because it is saying there are NO apples and it is talking about apples, so therefore it is an "apples absolute" if you will. The same applies to morals. Saying " there are no moral absolutes" is an absolute, which contradicts with itself because you are saying yourself that there are no moral absolutes, which is a moral absolute.
No. What a moral relativist means when he states 'there are no moral absolutes' is that there is no absolute instance in which there is definitively a 'right' or a 'wrong' regarding an action. This is what a moral absolute is. 'There are no moral absolutes' is not an instance in which there is definitively a 'right' or 'wrong' regarding an action and therefore is not a moral absolute.
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By the way (and this is for everybody reading this thread and participating), I am really not trying to come off as condescending or rude, but as a Christian I owe it to myself to talk about this kind of stuff and "debate" (such an ugly word) what it is that I believe, to prove the validity (if only to myself) of what I believe. So just thank you for all that are participating, and now back to the topic. (sorry for the temporary derailment)
Good. You are fulfilling your duty as per 1 Peter 3:15.
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Ok, back to the response...
In your response you said, "Each of us as individuals acts as we wish, based on what we personally perceive to be right and wrong. That includes creating a legal system with lawyers and judges and courts and jails. In some places, it includes death as a penalty for some crimes." You are dancing around the fact that these beliefs that are right and wrong had to come from somewhere. As humans we all have consciences, which is God's law written upon our heart, to know what is right and what is wrong. I do agree that courts and jails and all of that have been made, which had to come from us knowing what is right and wrong, and those standards had to come from somewhere.
It is quite a stretch to go from 'we have a conscience' to 'this is a moral law written upon our hearts by God' and is one that you will need to demonstrate. As a human being, I understand that I do not like to be hurt. It does not take a lot then for me to be able to extend this idea to other people, identifying that they do not like to be hurt either. In fact, it is pretty simple.
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In that paragraph about the argument hinging upon an invisible God existing, you are correct. But you are assuming that God doesn't exist which would make moral absolutes invalid, but the argument that God exists is a whole other topic entirely, and another thread should be made.
No. He just is not assuming that god does exist.
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Moral absolutes are not the only evidence of God's existence. But for now we should stay on the topic of Moral Absolutes/ Moral Relativism.
So far, you have yet to make a case that even morality is evidence that a god exists. Even if we accept the fallacious arguments you have put forth so far, that does not automatically imply that it then must be a god who gave us morality. 'Moral relativism' or 'god did it' is not a true dichotomy.