Quote:
Originally Posted by Stu Pidasso
Suppose in a catholic marriage one of the partners had AIDS. Would it be okay for the male to wear a condom for the purpose of preventing the disease from being transmitted to the other partner? Would you say such an action was purposely intended to impair the capacity of the sex act to transmit life? I would not.
Noone ever claimed that marriage was easy. The person with AIDS should either not get married, abstain during marriage, or find a partner who is willing to accept the risk (or already has AIDS, etc). What is marriage? Marriage is the union of a husband and wife with the purpose of procreation. Those who are not open to children should not marry.
Since marriage is ordered toward procreation, a person with AIDS also might take into account the serious risk that they and their partner might die and leave the child parent-less - this should also affect their decision.
About your use of the principle of double effect - you are saying that by using condoms, the purpose is not to 'prevent contraception' but to 'prevent the spread of disease' while allowing the couple to have sex. Again, the purpose of sex is uniting and procreative, so it would violate both principles still.