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07-22-2018 , 02:22 PM
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Originally Posted by neeeel
I dont understand, how is the question "Is sexual preference an immutable characteristic" disgusting and homophobic?
It is a question of history, and context. There is a long, and disgusting history of attacking being gay as a "choice", as it being something from nurture not nature, something that you can use "gay conversion therapy" to undo. These kinds of delegitimizing comments have been used to defend anti-sodomy laws, to deny the right to marriage equality, and even ITT where it was not "REAL discrimination" when it is against gays.

Most commonly, I've found, this kind of argument is used mainly as an explicit defense from the comparison to black people. While you don't accept it, many people DO accept the CRA as good, so have to construct arguments why it shouldn't be extended to gay people as well. So the response is the (generally terrible argument, regardless of how offensive it is) that being black is "immutable" while being gay is not, ergo CRA shouldn't be extended.

Whether being gay is "ummutable" or not simply has no relevance to a discussion on rights or protections or social acceptance of gay people. They should be able to be married - and not fired - regardless of where exactly being gay sits on some nature/nurture spectrum. So sure, while it is possible to have a non-homophobic scientific question related to this (I think the second son thing is kinda cool, for instance), not in how it was used earlier ITT.
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07-22-2018 , 02:23 PM
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Originally Posted by uke_master
Stop making **** up. Vast numbers of Christians don't say anti-gay things. These specific Christians, however, proselyted explicit, homophobic propaganda around the city. That you somehow jump from my criticism of this specific group of homophobes to me assuming ANY time christians talk about gays is negative is just ridiculous.
I said this, because I dont see anything that was openly homophobic, so was conceding that, in general, I understand that christians are seen as anti-gay. I dont think thats a contraversial statement.




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Great. I only ask that the NEXT time you choose to include the actual context in your whataboutisms. Because when this is described as simply Christians being "verbally abused" by gay people, without the crucial context, it makes it appear like you think it is one where the same standards DO apply and that people like me are making some type of inconsistency. Since you seem to accept my argument that indeed they are not the same - legally OR morally - I'm doubtful there is anyone ITT for whom your example poses some challenge of consistency.
Again, your portrayal as "whataboutisms" is extremely uncharitable. Its not whataboutism in the logical fallacy sense, my bringing up the cafe owner incident was not intended to prove a position false, or to strengthen my position. For the 4th time, it was to clarify if standards were being applied consistently.
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07-22-2018 , 02:28 PM
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Originally Posted by uke_master
It is a question of history, and context. There is a long, and disgusting history of attacking being gay as a "choice", as it being something from nurture not nature, something that you can use "gay conversion therapy" to undo. These kinds of delegitimizing comments have been used to defend anti-sodomy laws, to deny the right to marriage equality, and even ITT where it was not "REAL discrimination" when it is against gays.

Most commonly, I've found, this kind of argument is used mainly as an explicit defense from the comparison to black people. While you don't accept it, many people DO accept the CRA as good, so have to construct arguments why it shouldn't be extended to gay people as well. So the response is the (generally terrible argument, regardless of how offensive it is) that being black is "immutable" while being gay is not, ergo CRA shouldn't be extended.

Whether being gay is "ummutable" or not simply has no relevance to a discussion on rights or protections or social acceptance of gay people. They should be able to be married - and not fired - regardless of where exactly being gay sits on some nature/nurture spectrum. So sure, while it is possible to have a non-homophobic scientific question related to this (I think the second son thing is kinda cool, for instance), not in how it was used earlier ITT.
ok, but I still dont see how a question can be disgusting and homophobic. You could just answer the question.
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07-22-2018 , 03:16 PM
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Originally Posted by well named
Citation needed.
You are free to read any decision rendered by any court on the matter. There are petitions to change this fact, but it remains a fact nonetheless.


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We're not talking about social stigma here, we're talking about anti-discrimination law. That's what "protected class" refers to, and as a matter of law religion is a protected class. See titles II, III, and VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
Protected class refers to immutable traits, as is defined by controlling precedent. Precedentially, religious freedom is immutable. I would say philosophically speaking I disagree.
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07-22-2018 , 03:22 PM
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Originally Posted by neeeel
I said this, because I dont see anything that was openly homophobic.
I'm really unsure how to respond. This is sort of a "no the sky is green" type situation. You are looking at the four page pamphlet here right? You seriously don't see anything the least bit homophobic about that?

If you don't, I'm genuinely unsure of where to even begin.


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I understand that christians are seen as anti-gay. I dont think thats a contraversial statement.
I emphatically disagree. I don't think Christians are anti-gay at all, nor that this is a common perception. Large majorities of Democrat christians, for instance, support gay marriage. I work at a university, almost every christian colleague I know is a firm defender of gay rights. So I would be extremely uncomfortable with any form of sweeping criticism of christians as anti-gay.

What is clear is that these specific christians are anti-gay, as evidenced from the anti-gay pamphlets they were distributing.


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Again, your portrayal as "whataboutisms" is extremely uncharitable. Its not whataboutism in the logical fallacy sense, my bringing up the cafe owner incident was not intended to prove a position false, or to strengthen my position. For the 4th time, it was to clarify if standards were being applied consistently
Ok, I will take you at your word that you were making a good faith attempt to clarify standards, and that you were not attempting to discredit us with an implicit charge of hypocrisy. When you left out the crucial context, and presented it as random Christians being "verbally abused" by a gay owner (as opposed to homophobic proselytizers being told their propaganda was offensive) it didn't make me think you were arguing in good faith. But you are adamant that this was not your intention, and so I accept it on face value.

Regardless, since you appear to accept my argument that indeed these are legally and morally different positions, it seems like there is nothing left to say on the substance of the example.
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07-22-2018 , 03:28 PM
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Originally Posted by neeeel
ok, but I still dont see how a question can be disgusting and homophobic. You could just answer the question.
I suppose in utter isolation and devoid of any context, just about anything can be seen as innocent. It is sort of like how "are black people lazy?" is a question with a massive history of racism, but of course one could ask some academic question about racial stratification of workplace productivity or something. But there is a clear context here.

I don't really care to do a deep dive into the nature vs nurture question on being gay in the context of granting them the same rights as christians or black people have. It just isn't relevant.
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07-22-2018 , 03:32 PM
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Ok, I will take you at your word that you were making a good faith attempt to clarify standards, and that you were not attempting to discredit us with an implicit charge of hypocrisy.
I dont understand. If you werent applying standards consistently, then of course you would be hypocritical. so when I was seeing if you applied standards consistently, of course I would have called you hypocritical if you hadnt applied standards consistently. I dont see what this has to do with whataboutism, or "faux concern"
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07-22-2018 , 03:53 PM
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Originally Posted by neeeel
I dont understand. If you werent applying standards consistently, then of course you would be hypocritical. so when I was seeing if you applied standards consistently, of course I would have called you hypocritical if you hadnt applied standards consistently. I dont see what this has to do with whataboutism, or "faux concern"
A whataboutism is when you attack me not by addressing my arguments, but by saying "what about example X" that tries to make me look hypocritical. It has become a meme because of how commonly and poorly this is used. When you stripped the crucial context away that makes the lack of hypocrisy clear, my first reaction is that you were engaging in a classic example of this poor type of attack, and were not making a good faith attempt to understand the position of your opponents. However, I accept at face value your claim that this was not your intent. It appears you instead you were some combination of unaware of the context and disagreed that the context is indeed one of people spreading homophobic propaganda. But regardless, your position is that you thought it was a meaningful example that would be edifying for the conversation. I accept that, and it seems we have now exhausted the usefulness of this example.
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07-22-2018 , 04:10 PM
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Originally Posted by Do0rDoNot
You are free to read any decision rendered by any court on the matter. There are petitions to change this fact, but it remains a fact nonetheless.
Your link does not support your claim that immutability is the fundamental basis of discrimination law. The authors note that prevalence of arguments based in immutability but also point out that in the history of law relating to equal protection immutability was only one of several considerations:

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To begin, the Supreme Court has mentioned immutability as one of several factors that might be relevant to the question of whether a legislative classification based on a particular trait deserves heightened scrutiny by the courts. For instance, the Court has referred to immutability alongside “visibility”—whether a group “exhibit[s] obvious . . . or distinguishing characteristics that define [it] as a discrete group.” The Court has considered other independent factors as well, including whether the class has “experienced a ‘history of purposeful unequal treatment,’” whether it has “been subjected to unique disabilities on the basis of stereotyped characteristics not truly indicative of [its] abilities,” and whether it is “in need of extraordinary protection from the majoritarian political process.”
As an aside, those quotes should also speak to our prior discussion about the way in which courts evaluate the outcomes associated with potential rulings.

I also just cited another article which discusses the same case (Frontiero v. Richardson) as well as others, making a similar argument. I will quote a longer section:

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Contrary to the notion that the Equal Protection Clause protects only groups who share an immutable trait (as argued in McHugh, 2013), the Supreme Court has historically treated immutability as a factor to be considered rather than a requirement to be fulfilled (Halley, 1994). Moreover, in some decisions (such as Graham v. Richardson, 1971), the Court has applied “heightened scrutiny” for equal protection purposes without making any reference to immutability at all.

Court decisions regarding other stigmatized groups make clear that the immutability of group membership is not a necessary characteristic for a group to fall under the purview of the Equal Protection Clause. In 1971 the Court unanimously determined that alienage classifications were subject to strict scrutiny, just like race and national origin classifications (Graham v. Richardson, 1971). Alienage is obviously not an immutable trait, given that many noncitizens have the opportunity to become naturalized citizens (Gerstmann, 1999). Similarly, the Court has also applied heightened scrutiny to laws discriminating against children born out of wedlock, even though such children could be “legitimatized” under many states’ laws (Gerstmann, 1999; Weber v. Aetna Casualty & Surety Co., 1972). In later cases, the Court has specifically asked whether groups “exhibit obvious, immutable, or distinguishing characteristics that define them” (Bowen v. Gilliard, 1987, p. 602; Lyng v. Castillo, 1988, p. 638). By using the word or rather than and, the Court indicated that immutability was not a sine qua non for applying heightened scrutiny under the Equal Protection Clause.

Finally, the Court has repeatedly found that immutability by itself is not sufficient grounds for heightened scrutiny. In Frontiero, for example, the Justices observed that laws regarding intelligence and physical disability did not merit heightened scrutiny—despite the immutability of these traits —because such traits were often relevant to an individual’s “ability to perform or contribute to society” (Frontiero v. Richardson, 1973, p. 688), therefore creating a potentially rational basis for laws regarding these groups. Accordingly, advocates for same-sex marriage in California, Connecticut, and Iowa have successfully argued that the immutability of sexual orientation is not required for a characteristic to be considered a suspect classification for equal protection purposes, and these courts specifically described immutability as a “subsidiary” or “supplemental” factor for suspect class status, rather than a prerequisite (Kerrigan v. Commission of Public Health, 2008; Marriage Cases, 2008; Varnum v. Brien, 2009).

In United States v. Windsor, a federal appeals court forcefully rejected the claim that a finding of immutability was necessary to define a suspect class. Rather than asking whether homosexuality was immutable, the court asked whether “homosexuality is a sufficiently discernible characteristic to define a discrete minority class” (Windsor v. United States, 2012, p. 183). Although the court acknowledged that this consideration is often couched in terms of immutability, it insisted that the test is broader, focusing on “whether the characteristic of the class calls down discrimination when it is manifest” (p. 183). Because “sexual preference is necessarily disclosed when two persons of the same sex apply for a marriage license,” the court found that “sexual orientation is a sufficiently distinguishing characteristic to identify the discrete minority class of homosexuals”
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Originally Posted by Do0rDoNot
Protected class refers to immutable traits, as is defined by controlling precedent
I'm not sure why you think it's useful to link to the wiki page on legal precedents. You should be citing the actual case which establishes the fact that protected class can only refer to "immutable" traits defined so as to exclude sexual orientation.

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Originally Posted by Do0rDoNot
Precedentially, religious freedom is immutable.
The above is incoherent. When the CRA prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion it's not the individual's "religious freedom" that is at stake, legally. The question is about whether -- in the contexts specified by Title II, III, and VII -- it is legal to discriminate against a person on the grounds of their religious identification. Refusing to hire someone because of their religion is not infringement of their religious freedom in the 1st amendment sense, but it does violate anti-discrimination law.

Referring back to the arguments about sex and race discrimination made in Frontiero, it's quite clear that religious affiliation is not immutable in the sense contemplated in the analogies presented in that decision, nor in the sense that neeel is using the term. And yet religious affiliation is protected. Basically, you're trying to twist the definition of immutability so as to cover religion without abandoning your claim that only immutable traits can be protected under discrimination law. But instead you should be abandoning that claim because your own citation shows it to be false.
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07-22-2018 , 05:15 PM
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Originally Posted by Aaron W.
You take the tactic of just blowing off things by calling them "disgusting" (and "homophobic") a lot, but at some point you need to realize that this approach loses its power and looks more like you're avoiding difficult questions rather than taking an informed and principled stand against something.
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Originally Posted by uke_master
You're welcome to dig through the beginning of the thread where I elaborated at some length to neeel actually iirc about why I found that particular line of questioning so homophobic. I've also made over 75 posts ITT addressing many issues from probably every major poster here. So I reject the charge that I'm avoiding difficult questions.
I did not claim that you *were* avoiding difficult questions. I claimed that simply calling things disgusting and walking away makes it "look like" you're avoiding difficult questions.

My assertion was that you would be better off linking to those other posts, rather than simply washing your hands of the conversation because it *LOOKS LIKE* you're avoiding. By pointing back to previous comments, you can demonstrate that you've actually addressed it rather than saying that someone else should be hunting to find your ideas.

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So i reject the charge that I'm doing this frequently.
A quick search reveals that you've got 80-ish posts and in 10-ish of those posts you label something as "disgusting," including the first one in which you spent a great deal of time repeating labels of "disgusting" and "homophobic."

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Originally Posted by uke_master
This is an extremely homophobic view. Deciding that "REAL" discrimination are things that are genetic is ridiculous. Discrimination against people of different religions, or different cultures isn't "REAL" because religion and culture isn't genetic? Discrimination against disabled people (from nongenetic ailments) isn't "REAL" discrimination? Of course not. To suggest that discrimination against LGBT people is not "REAL" discrimination because being LGBT is putatively not genetic is a disgusting, homophobic claim.
Your basic content is fine. "REAL" discrimination as a label to distinguish it from discrimination is absurd (true scotsman-like). The comparison of other non-genetic forms of discrimination is fine.

But trying to use the stupidity of the label to also try to classify it as "disgusting" and "homophobic" really makes your position appear weak. It appears from the outside you're playing more of a game with emotional labels than you are with content. The first word expresses emotional and not intellectual disagreement, which weakens it. The second one in this context seems appropriate, but you should be cautious in your applications.

This also isn't the only time you've used those two in combination regarding LGBT issues.
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07-22-2018 , 06:04 PM
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Originally Posted by Aaron W.
I did not claim that you *were* avoiding difficult questions. I claimed that simply calling things disgusting and walking away makes it "look like" you're avoiding difficult questions.
Well thank you. Since you were so worried about how I would look, it seems you've linked back to the first time I put him on ignore. Anyone who gave a **** can go back and see that this perception is false: I clearly maintained a long back and forth explaining my position. Yay!

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Your basic content is fine. "REAL" discrimination as a label to distinguish it from discrimination is absurd (true scotsman-like). The comparison of other non-genetic forms of discrimination is fine.

But trying to use the stupidity of the label to also try to classify it as "disgusting" and "homophobic" really makes your position appear weak. It appears from the outside you're playing more of a game with emotional labels than you are with content. The first word expresses emotional and not intellectual disagreement, which weakens it. The second one in this context seems appropriate, but you should be cautious in your applications.
I disagree. I don't think that emotion necessarily weakens intellectual disagreement. I agree that adding disgusting conveys and emotional weight, as intended, and one that I believe is appropriate here, but I don't see how that weakens my intellectual disagreement, the basic position of which you seem to think is more or less fine.

Take the homophobic pamphlets from my conversation with neeeel. I intellectually disagree with them. I also, at an emotional level, find them disgusting. If anything, expressing these work in concert with each other, not opposition. I sometimes think in "polite society" we actually are too sanitized from emotion, that while we (rightfully) reject emotion without intellectualism, we shouldn't reject emotion with intellectualism. Besides, the reason I put him on ignore are emotional, not intellectual. So I find it appropriate.


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This also isn't the only time you've used those two in combination regarding LGBT issues.
This isn't the only time people have made homophobic arguments before.

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A quick search reveals that you've got 80-ish posts and in 10-ish of those posts you label something as "disgusting," including the first one in which you spent a great deal of time repeating labels of "disgusting" and "homophobic."
Right, there was an extensive back and forth on the two issues of comparisons to pedophilia and the "REAL discrimination" thing, where I elaborated about it on some length. And now we have a new example of a homophobic pamphlets being passed out. I'm happy to have those conversations, and not really worried about your tone policing, especially when it seems you don't have many substantially disagreements that I'm using 'homophobic' when it isn't actually accurate.
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07-22-2018 , 06:25 PM
I'm fine with saying that I'm absolutely avoiding answering questions that are designed to distract and obfuscate the discussion.

We all knew right when it was first asked that Do0rDoNot was going to go down this silly line where he argues that you can't really discriminate against gays anyway, or it doesn't really count, or you can't legislate for it. He hasn't made a secret of it.

It's okay to not play along with that kind of bull****.
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07-22-2018 , 06:32 PM
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Originally Posted by well named
Your link does not support your claim that immutability is the fundamental basis of discrimination law. The authors note that prevalence of arguments based in immutability but also point out that in the history of law relating to equal protection immutability was only one of several considerations:
Yes it does. From the first line: "Courts often hold that antidiscrimination law protects “immutable” characteristics, like sex and race." The article then goes on to say that LGBT activists have attempted and have succeeded in persuading some courts to widen the scope of application of antidiscrimination law, most likely because this is an extreme weakness in the position that antidiscrimination laws can/must apply to sexual preference. The philosophical basis upon which antidiscrimination laws are even feasible is protecting immutable characteristics.





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I'm not sure why you think it's useful to link to the wiki page on legal precedents. You should be citing the actual case which establishes the fact that protected class can only refer to "immutable" traits defined so as to exclude sexual orientation.
I didn't say it can only refer, and clearly in cases of religious belief it doesn't refer since religious belief is as immutable as sexual preference (meaning, not). I said, by precedent, until recently it has been the fundamental basis. Certainly the scope of the law can widen if courts rule that way, and LGBT activists are attempting to persuade courts to do so.



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The above is incoherent. When the CRA prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion it's not the individual's "religious freedom" that is at stake, legally.
I agree, philosophically, which is one of the major reasons I think anti-discrimination laws are unconstitutional. No individual has a 'right to not be discriminated against' by another individual, and this includes businesses.



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The question is about whether -- in the contexts specified by Title II, III, and VII -- it is legal to discriminate against a person on the grounds of their religious identification. Refusing to hire someone because of their religion is not infringement of their religious freedom in the 1st amendment sense, but it does violate anti-discrimination law.
Yes, and those laws are not within the bounds laid out in the constitution. The government can make no law abridging the liberty held by its citizens, including religious expression and freedom of association. Anti-discrimination laws do precisely that.

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Referring back to the arguments about sex and race discrimination made in Frontiero, it's quite clear that religious affiliation is not immutable in the sense contemplated in the analogies presented in that decision, nor in the sense that neeel is using the term. And yet religious affiliation is protected.
It's protected from laws the government can make abridging it. It is not protected on a person to person basis. Otherwise, Christians would be in an uproar about atheists making fun of them or rationally dissecting problems with their doctrines, in the same vein that LGBT activists throw a temper tantrum when anyone points out any difference whatsoever between homosexual and heterosexual behavior. I've already said that religious belief is mutable. So aside from my belief that anti-discrimination laws are illegal as it is, I also don't think, at the very least, that they should apply to either religion or sexual preference.

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Basically, you're trying to twist the definition of immutability so as to cover religion without abandoning your claim that only immutable traits can be protected under discrimination law. But instead you should be abandoning that claim because your own citation shows it to be false.
I think you need to read my posts more carefully. A lot of your insinuations of arguing in bad faith, etc. are most likely you reading more into my position than there is, and drawing false conclusions about the integrity of that position.

Last edited by Do0rDoNot; 07-22-2018 at 06:38 PM.
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07-22-2018 , 06:37 PM
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Originally Posted by Bladesman87
I'm fine with saying that I'm absolutely avoiding answering questions that are designed to distract and obfuscate the discussion.

We all knew right when it was first asked that Do0rDoNot was going to go down this silly line where he argues that you can't really discriminate against gays anyway, or it doesn't really count, or you can't legislate for it. He hasn't made a secret of it.

It's okay to not play along with that kind of bull****.
Lol it's super amusing and satisfying to me that neither your nor uke have any idea how to counter my arguments and have to not only revert to the silent treatment, but make posts explaining why you're giving the silent treatment to even stay in the conversation. I'll consider that a decisive victory at this point.

It also makes me further respect wellnamed and OrP who are both well-equipped to engage in this conversation. One of the reasons why they are so well-equipped is their continued history of not playing that silly game.
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07-22-2018 , 06:43 PM
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Originally Posted by Do0rDoNot
Yes it does. From the first line: "Courts often hold that antidiscrimination law protects “immutable” characteristics, like sex and race."
These two statements are not equivalent:

1) Immutability is the fundamental basis of illegal discrimination.
2) Courts often hold that antidiscrimination law protects “immutable” characteristics, like sex and race.

The first is false, the second is true. I am not interested in your (idiosyncratic) philosophical interpretation of the law. I'm interested in the actual law. The law protects religious affiliation, which is a mutable characteristic, and you cannot cite any actual court decision which holds that immutability is the fundamental basis of a discrimination claim.

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Originally Posted by Do0rDoNot
I didn't say it can only refer
It seems to me that you clearly did. In response to my statement that sexual orientation was not immutable (at least not in a straightforward and universal way), you wrote:

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Originally Posted by Do0rDoNot
Then 1) it can't be unfairly discriminated against and 2) it cannot be legally protected the way other immutable traits are.
I am only interested in your claim that immutability is fundamental to anti-discrimination because it appears to be premise from which you reach the conclusion that there can be no legal protection against discrimination on the basis of a mutable characteristic.

My point is that both your (1) and (2) above are false, as a matter of law.
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07-22-2018 , 06:56 PM
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Originally Posted by Do0rDoNot
Lol it's super amusing and satisfying to me
I'm fairly sure this is a lie. I'd bet good money that you're annoyed and wholly unsatisfied with the fact that I've refused to play along with you.
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07-22-2018 , 07:26 PM
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Originally Posted by well named
I am not interested in your (idiosyncratic) philosophical interpretation of the law.
Let me restate this. I think there can be an interesting conversation about what the law should be. But if you want to have that conversation then I think you ought to write that sexual orientation shouldn't be legally protected rather than it cannot be. It would avoid a lot of confusion.
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07-22-2018 , 08:02 PM
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Originally Posted by Bladesman87
I'm fine with saying that I'm absolutely avoiding answering questions that are designed to distract and obfuscate the discussion.
Calling it out as a distraction is fine. I agree with that. "Since you've asked this disgusting question, I'm blocking you" isn't really doing that.

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We all knew right when it was first asked that Do0rDoNot was going to go down this silly line where he argues that you can't really discriminate against gays anyway, or it doesn't really count, or you can't legislate for it. He hasn't made a secret of it.
We all know that there's no intellectual foundation for most everything DODN says. He has shown himself to be uneducated in the things he has put forward, including both political philosophy and history, and he has shown himself a failure of both rhetoric and logic.

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It's okay to not play along with that kind of bull****.
I'll leave it open to interpretation what it means to "play along" with it. From what I can tell, there's a full-on intellectual smack-down of DODN happening.
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07-22-2018 , 08:02 PM
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Originally Posted by Bladesman87
I'm fairly sure this is a lie. I'd bet good money that you're annoyed and wholly unsatisfied with the fact that I've refused to play along with you.
I suspect otherwise. He likely feels he's bested you into silence.
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07-22-2018 , 08:43 PM
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Originally Posted by Do0rDoNot
It's no different on the extreme left, buddy.
Yeah, but the Democrats hasn't made one of them president recently.

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Outside the physical space of europe there are a few, sure, but I wouldn't say 'lots.' And the ones that are, were either under direct Western rule until recently and/or have a high percentage of Europeans in their populations.
Almost twice as many people live in just democratic India alone than in all of Europe. There is also Japan, South Korea, Taiwan, Australia, New Zealand, Hong Kong, Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Philippines, etc all are at least partially liberal democratic countries in Asia Pacific. More or less the entire continent of North America is democratic. South America and Africa also have democratic countries. The evidence to me indicates that people all around the world have found the ideals of democracy, human rights, freedom and equality exemplified in the republican forms of representative government attractive and worth implementing.

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It can function well, with a high percentage of white europeans in reality, not in theory. That is settled history. What is far from settled is whether western nations can actually survive 'diversity' of the caliber and intensity that marks the last 5 decades with no end in sight. In this idea you find a lot of support from the right. America's immigration policy was closed for periods to allow integration of mass amounts of immigrants, and that is always dependent on a large and 'norm heavy' majority to work.

What the alt-right gets very, very wrong about this is that they think the problem is racial diversity.
Two points:

1) I disagree that our national ideology of race functioned well during the time when white people were a larger majority of Americans. It didn't unify the country, with millions of Americans and Africans being forced to obey its dictates by literal chains and whips. It led to our most deadly war and the biggest social movement of the twentieth century. Even today, you can see in the utter repudiation by Democrats of the Trumpian anti-PC attitude towards race that it still divides the country.

2) My own view is much more corny. I believe the American system of government and the American people have created a good country to live in. I think that if people come here fleeing violence or oppression in their home country, or even just because of its greater economic opportunities, that they will more typically become America's fiercest and most loyal partisans. This is generally my own experience of recent immigrants, who typically have both a clearer understanding and more positive appraisal of American values than the average native-born American.

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I agree with you on race, I don't think it particularly matters what race someone is, but I don't agree if you're insinuating American values can survive constant and intense immigration without cooling off periods of integration and melting-pot-ism which depends on a strong and large core of 'Americans.' That is of course what Trump and his supporters are concerned with, and they are right to be concerned. The left brands this 'bigotry' which is just a silly pejorative...clearly bigotry is a good thing when confronted with the values and goals of an organization like say, the Taliban, or Stalinist Russia, or ISIS, or the Mexican drug cartels. So there is always going to be some kind of intolerance or slightly hostile indifference present when you really love your own culture. It's most often benign.
I'm glad we agree on race. Also, I agree, we should generally bar people who are members of the Taliban, ISIS, or a Mexican drug cartel from immigrating to the US. Those are all criminal organizations and their members should be considered criminals and so barred entry. What I oppose is using the existence of ISIS as an organization as a reason for banning all Muslims, or all Arabs, or even just all Syrians and Iraqis from emigrating to the USA. This overestimates both the probability that they are secret terrorists and the harm that would result if they were. It also underestimates the benefit to the US from a more welcoming and fair immigration system.

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The left also calls it 'racism' which it is only insofar as the vast majority of people wishing to come to the USA are brown. The intent is not 'racist' however, which is something the left just cannot seem to understand. These consistent and malevolent misrepresentation of the concerns of the right are why Trump and his followers brand leftist media organizations 'fake news.' It's amazing to me so many smart people on the left can fall for it, but it really comes down to both sides refusal to listen to each other. It's easy to misrepresent someones opinion when 1) ones own opinion is heavily contingent upon perceived injustices created by the other side and 2) you have no idea what the other side's actual opinion is and don't do a damn thing towards understanding it.
I agree that most Trump voters are not motivated by a hatred of people from other races or ethnicities. However, most of them support policies that explicitly discriminate against ethnic/race minorities. The ban on immigration from specific countries is an obvious example. Demagogic politicians like Trump also use people's natural fears and uncertainty about the future and the basic tribal instincts of humanity to make people more worried about and scared of minorities by lying about their criminality and the extent of their influence over society, and as a result they support bad policy.

However, this is all a distraction from what is actually important - what I (and most of the Democrats I know) care about is that the policy is bad law. It harms our relationships with people in the Middle East and Africa in ways that makes us less safe. That we owe a debt of honor to Iraqis, Syrians, and other people who have cooperated with us in our fight against various terrorist organizations to let them in come to the US. That the US should try to use its power in a manner consistent with its best ideals of human rights, democracy, rule of law, and so on, and this discriminatory policy is not consistent with these ideals. Democrats say all these things, but if we also mention the word "racism," nothing else we say will be heard by Republicans* because they definitely know that they are not racists and that anyone considering them racist is obviously just super biased.

My view is that Donald Trump calls news organizations "fake news" as a means of inoculating his followers against criticism of him. His obvious disregard for the role of the press as understood by the Founders or in the Constitution is one of the more obvious ways in which he regularly demonstrates his unfitness for office.

EDIT: *Not all Republicans.

Last edited by Original Position; 07-22-2018 at 10:38 PM. Reason: spelling
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07-22-2018 , 08:49 PM
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Originally Posted by uke_master
Well thank you. Since you were so worried about how I would look, it seems you've linked back to the first time I put him on ignore. Anyone who gave a **** can go back and see that this perception is false: I clearly maintained a long back and forth explaining my position. Yay!
A couple points:

1) You had three replies. That's hardly a "long back and forth."
2) In a 600+ post thread, saying that someone can "go back and see" something is factually accurate, but it's really unlikely because of the sheer volume of text to sift through.

There's also the potential of faulty memory. I still remember that at one point there was a particular poster in some monster thread that accused me of saying something, and despite multiple challenges to produce the statement and several people also saying that they were not able to find those comments, the challenging poster continued to insist that it was there.

I make heavy use of quoting and links to previous comments precisely because it grounds the conversation in the written record and not just the mental one.

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I disagree.
That's fine. We disagree on many things.

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I sometimes think in "polite society" we actually are too sanitized from emotion, that while we (rightfully) reject emotion without intellectualism, we shouldn't reject emotion with intellectualism.
First, I don't think of RGT as "polite society."

And it's not so much about "sanitizing" intellectual ideas from emotions. I would argue that the primary positions in the LGBT conversation are emotional and not intellectual. This isn't to say that there isn't intellectual content on both sides that can be discussed (political, historical, and religious perspectives). Saying that we're "sanitizing" makes it sound like the intellectual part came first, then the emotion got put on afterward, and so we're needing to wipe it off.

I would say that it's more about "distilling" the intellectual pieces. Once you get past the emotion, what do you have? Do you have a solid intellectual foundation or not? We're clearly seeing in DODN that he lacks the intellectual foundation, but that's only because he's continuing to put out and try to defend intellectual garbage.

Most of our thoughts/emotions come from emotional places. I think to deny that is to deny reality. But I also think that those emotional places are some of the least reliable sources of what's actually true in the world. That's why we need to distill those thoughts. Those intellectual pieces arise from the emotional messiness. It's not that the emotional pieces are bad or harmful, but they aren't the best form of expression.

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And now we have a new example of a homophobic pamphlets being passed out. I'm happy to have those conversations, and not really worried about your tone policing, especially when it seems you don't have many substantially disagreements that I'm using 'homophobic' when it isn't actually accurate.
To address the last sentence, I think it's both an intellectual and strategic error to use "homophobic" as any form of expression that is anti-gay. I know you use the term very loosely, and it seems that you do it primarily to try to use broad labels with emotional impact.

I don't find the pamphlets to be "homophobic" as much as I find them to be weird, misguided, and stupid. But I would assent to the idea that they are "anti-gay." In my mind (and in the minds of lots of people), those labels are not interchangeable. Homophobic is a stronger term than anti-gay, and encompasses far more emotional content. The term anti-gay carries a more precise feel of an intellectual assessment.

This difference comes from the same place that my disagreement with you loading up on emotional words like "disgusting" comes from. Your use of "homophobic" seems primarily to be driving at the emotional content it carries for you. Your distaste is reflexively strong and it carries that type of emotional reaction from you. But I think it actually weakens your ability to argue against the anti-gay message of the pamphlet by taking that approach.

Consider the following:
1) Policy X is anti-gay.
2) Policy X is homophobic.

For any given X, you will find more people agreeing with 1) than with 2). And this is why I think it's strategically an error to use homophobic loosely. It's not so much about the person you're discussing with as much as it as it is creating more space for people to agree with you.

In the end, you can use language however you want. But from an outsider's perspective, it comes off as a much weaker argument when you put more stock into the emotionally-laden words.
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07-22-2018 , 10:50 PM
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Originally Posted by Aaron
Most of our thoughts/emotions come from emotional places. I think to deny that is to deny reality. But I also think that those emotional places are some of the least reliable sources of what's actually true in the world. That's why we need to distill those thoughts. Those intellectual pieces arise from the emotional messiness. It's not that the emotional pieces are bad or harmful, but they aren't the best form of expression.
I'm going to give a shot at a narrative, not expecting much coming from it:

The narrative you have espoused here is one that begins with laudable goals, but ends up being somewhat limiting by the end. I think a lot of people think as you argue here. They see the manifest problems of emotion lacking intellectualism in our society, they see the "mess" and try to replace them with intellectualism, that the latter is the "best form of expression". I would suggest the two should play a more complementary role, where we are adding intellectualism to our emotional primitives. But we don't just discard the emotion at that point, we use it to feedback and motivate action, and further intellectualism, and further emotion, and more action, and so on. I suggest that we should embrace emotion in our public discourse more.

Let me give an example. I remember the speech by Emma Gonzalez after Parkland. It was very compelling. It was seeped in emotion befitting the tragedy. It also made various intellectual arguments. I don't even remember if the arguments were all that good....it was a young kid in an impossible situation, they probably weren't. Eitherway, i've forgotten them, but I sure remember the emotion I felt. But to just view it through the lens of intellectualism, divorced or "sanitized" from emotion, would play a different role in society. It motivates people differently, it affects our memory differently, it helps us direct our attention differently.

On a personal note, I've worked hard over the last few years to try and channel my own emotions more positively, allowing them to flourish and motivate (particularly in my role as an educator), not just to argue silly intellectual points on the internet.





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I don't find the pamphlets to be "homophobic" as much as I find them to be weird, misguided, and stupid. But I would assent to the idea that they are "anti-gay." In my mind (and in the minds of lots of people), those labels are not interchangeable. Homophobic is a stronger term than anti-gay, and encompasses far more emotional content. The term anti-gay carries a more precise feel of an intellectual assessment.

...

Consider the following:
1) Policy X is anti-gay.
2) Policy X is homophobic.
Interesting. I wasn't meaning it this way. As in, I don't feel I have some lessened emotional reaction to anti-gay than homophobic. Perhaps I'm the odd one in this case, but I don't think "anti-gay" is particularly common in our lexicon. We don't really say such and such is "anti-black". We say it is racist. I think the same is true here.

But let's flush this out a bit. Can you give me an example on the margin? Some people are distributing pamphlets around town that criticize gay people. The ones ITT are, in your estimate, better referred to as "anti-gay". What is the least kind of phrase or image (or action beyond pamphlets) or whatever you think is necessary for it to be upgraded to "homophobic"?

As time has gone on, my impression is that some of these terms have accepted wider, more encompassing definitions. What was called racist in 1960 is far more stringent than what is called racist today. That's generally a good thing (even for those who think some on the left go too far in calling things racist today, I think we'd likely agree the general trend of widening the scope is good).
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07-23-2018 , 12:09 AM
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Originally Posted by uke_master
The narrative you have espoused here is one that begins with laudable goals, but ends up being somewhat limiting by the end. I think a lot of people think as you argue here. They see the manifest problems of emotion lacking intellectualism in our society, they see the "mess" and try to replace them with intellectualism, that the latter is the "best form of expression". I would suggest the two should play a more complementary role, where we are adding intellectualism to our emotional primitives. But we don't just discard the emotion at that point, we use it to feedback and motivate action, and further intellectualism, and further emotion, and more action, and so on. I suggest that we should embrace emotion in our public discourse more.
I agree that emotion is a better motivator of action than intellect. But I would similarly argue that, at least on this forum, action is quite far from any realistic outcome. This isn't a forum where we're trying to organize ourselves into action (protest, boycott, etc.).

I don't object to "embracing" emotion in public discourse. But I think it needs to be done with care. The same wave of emotion that drives people to come out in droves to protest family separations at the border are the same type of wave that comes over people who feel threatened by racial diversity.

But you're not an orator in this forum. And this forum isn't the type of place for that. And I doubt you're going to motivate people into action from this forum. If you're going to embed emotion into your posting, I think the best form is positive emotional persuasion that draws people into agreeing with you, not using it as a way to draw sharper forms of disagreement.

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On a personal note, I've worked hard over the last few years to try and channel my own emotions more positively, allowing them to flourish and motivate (particularly in my role as an educator), not just to argue silly intellectual points on the internet.
Congratulations for this. I've argued elsewhere (not in this forum, but in general) that the primary battle of math education is emotional, not intellectual. A wide range of students (particularly female and minority) have stories about teachers that made them feel stupid or inferior, and those become burdens that they take with them.

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Interesting. I wasn't meaning it this way. As in, I don't feel I have some lessened emotional reaction to anti-gay than homophobic. Perhaps I'm the odd one in this case, but I don't think "anti-gay" is particularly common in our lexicon.
Think about how you got into a discussion with another poster about the -phobic suffix of "homophobic" and you'll see more clearly why there is a distinction to some.

Although I admit that there's not as clear of a distinction. For example, here's an article in the Atlantic from 2013. In this, the author seems to use them interchangeably, which more reflects your sense of the words.

https://www.theatlantic.com/national...ophobe/282333/

I would say that in news articles, it's more common to see a piece of legislation or policy by called "anti-gay" or "anti-LGBT" instead of being called "homophobic." (A probable exception is an opinion piece.) However, when you have people screaming about something or another, that will receive the label "homophobic."

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But let's flush this out a bit. Can you give me an example on the margin? Some people are distributing pamphlets around town that criticize gay people. The ones ITT are, in your estimate, better referred to as "anti-gay". What is the least kind of phrase or image (or action beyond pamphlets) or whatever you think is necessary for it to be upgraded to "homophobic"?
I think the distinction I would draw is a bit similar to what the article above suggests:

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Originally Posted by article
I would argue that an essential feature of the term “homophobia” must include personal animus or malice toward the gay community.
I don't think that the pamphlet contains an intentional animus or malice towards the gay community. I think it's a terribly misguided attempt at communication, and that it could be received as malicious, but I don't believe that this is the actual end goal.

So what would need to be different? I think it would need to have a more explicit message of animosity. "God hates you" or something like that would probably do it.

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As time has gone on, my impression is that some of these terms have accepted wider, more encompassing definitions. What was called racist in 1960 is far more stringent than what is called racist today. That's generally a good thing (even for those who think some on the left go too far in calling things racist today, I think we'd likely agree the general trend of widening the scope is good).
I would agree with the evolution of the term "racist" over time. Part of that does include an explicit acknowledgement of "racist" things, which I think is good.

However, I wouldn't hinge any arguments on the success of that term over other terms. It's the sort of post-hoc analysis that gets you into trouble. It's good that we acknowledge racism more broadly, but I don't think it's either good or bad that the label "racist" is applied to more things.

I think an example of this is the Obama-birther thing. I will agree that there were many who had a level of racial animus towards Obama, and that this emotion was communicated in their support of the birther movement. But there were also some people who were legitimately confused (uninformed) and were honestly seeking answers. I would call the first group racist but I wouldn't use that for the second group.

When birthers in general started to be labeled as being racist, that second group got swept up into the same net, and then they didn't really have as much motivation to listen to reason and facts when they were brought up because they've already been labeled negatively for their honest questions.

I think that using "homophobic" has the same net effect. You lose more than you win with the term when you use it. When it's clearly a personal animus, it makes sense to use it. "Homophobic rant" makes more sense than "anti-gay rant", but "anti-gay policy" makes more sense than "homophobic policy."

------

As a side note, I think that labeling policies that have a disproportionate affect on certain ethnic groups as "racist" is going to be problematic in the coming years. When a bill objectively does not appeal to race, it's a lot harder to "prove" that it's "racist." I think that this lazy labeling is going to start hitting some legal problems.

Redlining is a "racist" policy. Voter IDs laws are "discriminatory" (discriminates against the poor and others who are less likely to have certain forms of legal identification) and can be considered a way to suppress voter turnout, but they are not "racist" (because the specific language is race-blind, even though they may have a measurable race-based impact).

So I'm not sure that it should be considered a win that the label has started to be used more broadly.
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07-23-2018 , 02:54 PM
That’s way too much typing for me to get to right now but I did have one question: are you going to mathfest this year by chance?
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07-23-2018 , 04:00 PM
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Originally Posted by uke_master
That’s way too much typing for me to get to right now but I did have one question: are you going to mathfest this year by chance?
Unfortunately not. I've actually never been able to find my way to mathfest. It always falls at the same time as an annual faculty retreat that I attend.

I used to be a little bit more consistent (about every other year) at the JMM, but I was department chair for a few years and currently don't have any research going on (either for myself or with students). I'm neck-deep right now trying to build/grow our degree program, so I don't have a lot of extra time for research stuff. (Fortunately, I'm at a teaching-focused institution, so research can be pushed to the back burner without any real penalty.)
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