Quote:
Originally Posted by G1982
Why cannot I be a relativist who argues that whether an action is better to society is a valid reason for judging the morality of said action. The only difference is that I do not claim there is an objective proof that this is the case.
As an analogy, I could call apples bananas and bananas apples based on my own personal definitions. There is no objective reason why I am wrong, but there are a number of good reasons how it could be argued that I should instead take the majority position.
If you believe that the fact that an action is better for society makes that action right or wrong, then you believe that there are true moral claims. Thus, you believe that morality is objective. If you want to call this "relativism," fine, but that doesn't change what you believe. Also, note that our ability to give an objective proof that a moral claim is true is irrelevant to the issue.
The more technical, philosophical meaning (from
SEP) of "moral relativism," is that the moral relativist believes that moral claims "contain an essential indexical element." Indexicals are words like "I" or "there." The sentence, "I am 40 years old," can be either true or false depending on who is saying it. This is because the "I" relativizes the statement to the speaker.
Moral relativists claim that all moral claims are indexical in this manner. Thus, if I say, "Todd shouldn't steal in situation x," this statement might be true, but if you say, "Todd shouldn't steal in situation x," this statement might be false. For the relativist, what makes this statement true when I say it and false when you say it doesn't have anything to do with either the nature of stealing in situation x, but is the result of some difference between me and you (note that moral claims don't have to be indexed to persons, but can also be indexed to cultures).
The person who claims that moral relativism is false is claiming that the truth of some moral claims are not indexical in this way. For example, the truth-value of "You shouldn't steal in situation x," would not depend on any essential indexical element (e.g. on differences between the speakers), but on objective features about stealing in situation x (such as the effects of such an action), or necessary features of how we reason about such actions.
For example, let's take a claim like, "The gravitational pull of the moon is the cause of the ocean's tides." This is a true, non-relative statement. The truth or falsity of this statement doesn't depend on the speaker's beliefs, or the cultural traditions of society. On the other hand, the truth or falsity of a statement like, "Brocolli tastes good," is clearly relative to the speaker. If we add a practical claim like, "you should eat what tastes good," then this statement will only motivate us if it is (relatively) true.
The relativists in this thread have claimed that moral claims are relative to the speaker. That is, they've claimed that the truth or falsity of moral claims depend on the subjective state of the speaker. These are subjective states
about some action or state of affairs external to the person (my dislike or disapproval of murder).
Now, I'm not denying that the relativist cannot have such subjective states. My claim is that such subjective states do not give a reason for other people to not murder. However, since moral claims are supposed to be practical, that is, they are supposed to give people reasons for actions, this understanding of moral claims ends up making morality pointless. Another way of putting it is that if we relativize the truth of moral claims to the individual, then whether or not a moral claim is true or false wouldn't have any implication for how other people should act. To me, this is a form of moral skepticism, as it trivializes moral statements into irrelevance.