Firstly, the Greek Stoics were the first to put forth arguments against slavery. They advocated the brotherhood of humanity and the natural equality of all human beings, and consistently critiqued slavery as against the law of nature. So Bunny, how exactly would you define the people of Ancient Greece as being more enslaved than the people of Ancient Egypt?
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Originally Posted by PingClown
The atrocities of Hitler, Stalin and Mao occurred in an age where there was vastly more science and scientific thought than at any other time in the entire history of humanity. In fact, they depended on them.
Hitler himself was using "evolutionary reasoning" when he wanted the extermination of homosexuals and the disabled, and used breeding camps for healthy, strong, intelligent young men and women.
Bringing up Hitler is largely missing the point. 5% of the human population feel no empathy at all, and would largely be categorized as sociopaths or psychotics. They are incapable of behaving in a manner that - facilitates the survival of the species/that we consider moral - due to a lack of oxytocin production in their brain and their blood. Oxytocin is the molecule responsible for a predisposition toward empathetic/moral behaviours. Now if there is any candidate in our history that would fall within this 5% - Hitler and his delusional tendencies would be at the top of that list, rendering your example down to an utterly inapplicable attack on 'evolutionary reasoning'.
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Originally Posted by PingClown
I would love to see you detail this evidence. In the 18th and 19th centuries, the countries that used slavery and ruthlessly controlled their empires dominated the entire world, and still do to this day. They are in decline now, as countries partial to slave labor and control (i.e. China) are taking away their manufacturing.
Critics since the 18th century have argued that slavery tends to ****** technological advancement, since the focus is on increasing the number of slaves doing simple tasks rather than upgrading the efficiency of labour. Because of this, theoretical knowledge and learning in Greece—and later in Rome—was not applied to ease physical labour or improve manufacturing. (
http://web.archive.org/web/200804231...ticleId=223811).
Slavery eventually, on a large scale, becomes uneconomic because slaves have children; they need to be maintained and brought up for (say) 12 years before they yield an income to the slave-owner; also some will die late in childhood and that represents a dead loss to the business; also old slaves are non-productive but no one in European or American societies came to the extent of simply murdering them.
Additionally, the development of technology, especially after about 1720, rendered slavery increasingly uneconomic; the industrial revolution in Europe and America created machines that were far more effective than slaves in working round the clock, without illness, without complaint or possible insurrection, and requiring no caring or loss of conscience for religious folks.
Adam Smith also made the argument that free labor was economically better than slave labor, and argued further that slavery in Europe ended during the Middle Ages, and only then after both the church and state were separate, independent and strong institutions, that it is nearly impossible to end slavery in a free, democratic and republican forms of governments since many of its legislators or political figures were slave owners, and would not punish themselves, and that slaves would be better able to gain their freedom when there was centralized government, or a central authority like a king or the church.
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Originally Posted by PingClown
You have it backward, BTW. Society doesn't advance and seek intellectual pursuits because it's free from slavery. That is ROFL stupid. It advances because it has slaves!
You've grossly misinterpreted and misrepresented my claim here. I never meant to imply that freedom from slavery is the
only or
main cause of societal and technological development, but that it simply "
contributes" to the survival of the species in the long term, more so than it inhibits it - via contributions to societal advancement and technological development, which outweigh the drawbacks.
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Originally Posted by PingClown
Slaves aren't needed in modern societies because machines and electricity do most of the work that people once had to do, leaving few enough awful jobs that they can be filled without resorting to force. And where it is needed in places without infrastructure, as in the third world, it is easily implemented by the large disparity in wealth (created by machines), paying people peanuts for their labor.
Slaves
also aren't needed because slavery tends to ****** technological development. Things aren't so black and white as you make them out to be. There are other factors that contribute to the reasons for abolishing slavery.
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Originally Posted by PingClown
Bottom line, there is no "evolutionary" moral prohibition on slavery.
Incorrect. Morally speaking (as by my definition of morality), slavery inhibits, more so than contributes to technological advancement. Technological advancement enhances our chances of survival in the long term, thus making slavery an immoral behaviour.
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Originally Posted by PingClown
You do realize that infanticide is extremely common in both the animal world and among prehistoric humans? It makes strong evolutionary sense to kill the weak in your brood and everything from birds to humans have done it for millions of years. Evolutionary moral reasoning doesn't preclude infanticide either. Sorry.
I never said it did, I talked about a specific type of infanticide that relates to specific mutations like mental ******ation. I think that what you're purposely ignoring here is that a unique aspect of human infanticide is that selective killing of children is primarily based on gender, and not on specific mutations like 'mental ******ation', once again rendering your example moot. Additionally, you're use of the words 'extremely common' is grossly inaccurate with describing the commonality of infanticide - within any given population of a particular species. Only in fish is it relatively common, and even then, to use the word 'extremely' in describing this commonality would be incredibly inaccurate.
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Originally Posted by Neue Regel
i guess we should kill about half the people on earth then. murder the chinese!
You're oversimplifying it, and largely missing the point. Once we have an overpopulated planet, all that it will do to our moral predispositions is that it will make us more competitive - as resource constraints will be greater. Whether this competitiveness will become so intense as to the degree of life or death/war between countries for resources - I do not know.
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Originally Posted by Quavers
So men should rape as many women as they can so we can have as many births as possible?
Rape and violent behaviour erodes trust and altruism within any given society. This means that the society develops slower (as there are fewer transactions between agents) and this means that technology develops slower, ultimately meaning that - in the long term - our chances of survival as a collective is reduced. So no, we shouldn't rape as many women as we can.
Last edited by VeeDDzz`; 11-14-2011 at 07:36 PM.