Sometimes I get asked what the difference is between $1/$3 (or $1/$2) and $2/$5 and it's normally just summed up by aggression and 3bet frequency. Here's a hand that seems to sum it up well......
$1.3k effective. Folds to button and he opens for $25. I'm in the BB with A8 suited so make it $65. Button defends.
Flop is 844 rainbow and I cbet $60. He re-pops to $140, I 3bet to $400 and he folds.
At a $1/$3 table, the differences would often be......
- button folds pre-flop
- my hand is flatted rather than 3bet
- button does not re-raise. He just folds, or flats if he has a small pocket pair.
- A8 would often not 3bet the flop but would flat, check turn and be in a horrible spot if button continued.
It's by no means definitive but does seem to be a good example of what I see as the differences between the two games.
This would strike me as a very odd way to play A8s preflop in a 2/5 game as well.
Dont want to derail so i wont argue(i play up to 50-100 and play 25-50 regularly)op should consider 3 betting a bigger size pre and not 3 betting the flop is the way to go.