If we do not jam in this spot, and an Ace hits, the villain could easily presume we don't have an Ace and bet on the flop even if he doesn't have one. If he does, do we call? Not likely. Any ace on the flop (a frequent event) likely causes us to fold to a bet.

If he does have Aces, it remains unclear how we get away from the hand if the flop lacks an Ace. We lose (except when we make a set).

If he has AK, AQ, or AJ he may call our preflop jam, but won't call post flop unless an Ace hits. Those hands can play perfectly against us if we simply call.

I am not happy jamming, but I think we are up against Aces infrequently enough, and up against hands we dominate that will call our all in enough, that it is potentially the least ****ty option.

Unless your opponent is she:

http://youtu.be/bbSspZVhxLo

You dont fold KK pre on that spot...

agree. its not like its a spot where u r going to get exploited often when u fold, and we do have the AK blockers....but seems like we could have some JJ,AQ in our range. calling def keeps our range wider. so i would call.
haha disagree and disagree

might go for a water break before I hit the call button.

pretty easy call given position, would be a bit tuff if he was btn.

I'm flummoxed. Most competent posters are screaming for a call pre-flop.

OK. Then what? How do you turn that into a profitable call post flop? How does your flat call not prevent the villain from playing perfectly against you?

Not sure how post 16 doesn't say it all.

Cause that might be there worst logic itt would be my guess

U could be right. But I still haven't seen someone explain how to play the flop profitably after putting in 20% if their stack.

it's not that hard; >78% of the time we're in a postflop +EV spot and <22% we're in a postflop neutral EV spot, and it only costs us 500 to get in this scenario, how much postflop EV must you make on non A-flops? <641 chips.
now it´s up to you to judge if he/you will make that postflop.

other way to look at this: if you shove and get called and you could "surrender" and get the 3k (or w/e you shoved over his 4b) back on any flop with an ace, for the cost of losing a little equity (again depending on your postflop skills) on the times there is no ace on the flop, how big can the equity you lose be for this to be profitable?

Also: I don't think he'd ever call AJ & AQ on a shove there, and him never continuing without an ace postflop with those hands when hero calls is ridic.

and last:

This doesn't matter, in both scenario's "vill having AA and flop showing no A" the result will be the same, however with calling you gain chips on scenario "vill having AA and flop showing an A"

Your analysis is tight for a high level player, and if I knew I was against one I would not rush to jam here, either. But your analysis fails for a low level player, who will easily call with AQ, AJ, JJ, or even 4,5 suited.

In the very early stages of a not very high buy in tournament, there are quite a number of players who are willing to call anything, with anything. But if you allow them to see a flop, they will play fit or fold poker.

As the OP has no info on this player, and presumably plays a fair bit on this site, if the villain was talented he would know who he was.

I would not rush to give this unknown villain the credit he is being given. If this player does not have AA, or if the villain fails to improve on the flop, I think your flat call of his raise will freeze him and you will likely get nothing out of him unless you are beat. But he could easily see your preflop jam as weak and call.

In a vacuum, I am jamming. And then re-loading if need be.