I think this is the best forum for my question(s). I did not see a simple answer for this topic when I searched the forums. If this is the incorrect venue, please move. And I apologize if there is already an answer(s).

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A friend is planning to play in a tournament (in a few weeks) with a buy-in cost of $350.

He is suggesting that I pay $175 for 40%. That's paying for half of the cost for less than half of the (possible) return.

Is that typical of a staking agreement?

I presume that he means 40% of the profit. Or perhaps it's 40% of whatever he walks with at the end of the tournament. I shall clarify.

I can see reasons for not having the percentage staked equal the percentage return.

The player has to do the work. The player has to pay associated costs with being at the tourney.

But the backer has to take a chance of a complete loss. And the backer does not get to play.

Any thoughts about this offer?

Thank you for your feedback.

I copied my question to the Basic Forum. I suspect this was the wrong forum.

I found stuff about Staking, but not about a percentage.

Thank you all for your understanding and forbearance.

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http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/13...stions-166284/

you are basically paying markup by getting 40% of his action when paying 175$ of the initial 350$ buy in. you should only pay markup when the player is good enough to beat this game and has a high enough roi that still makes you money despite paying markup. you got to make that decision yourself.

anyway you are def entitled to 40% of what he cashes for. if he mincashes for 500$, your share would be 200$. if he ships it for 15k$ you are entitled to 6k$.