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Originally Posted by JaredL
Is the government running a ponzi scheme? I don't understand how it's possible to be running at a deficit every year. There was apparently a surplus for a bit when Clinton was in there, although I guess some don't believe that but it's the commonly held belief, but it's not like that really helped the debt situation. I vaguely remember reading something about paying it down later during a period of growth or in a boom period, but other than the Clinton period just discussed how does this work if even in huge periods of growth and record taxes coming in there are still huge deficits? Similarly, I have heard the expression "inflating away the debt" but it would seem like the inflation rate would have to be quite high to combat a large government deficit tacking onto the debt.
It is a serious issue, but essentially the inflation answer is the right one. In the uk we paid lip service to the idea of being debt neutral over the cycle, but then took out a massive loan in the good times and drank it all. You keep increasing the money supply, and the relative importance of yesterday's debt shrinks. Also, the trade deficit is a big point. A lot of the funding is coming from china and the far east. Fortunately, the $ is going to get ****ed, and that will screw the asians over good and proper.
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Originally Posted by Zurvan
I believe that one or both of Australia and New Zealand run at no or little debt. This is based on a vague memory, not research, so make of it what you will.
Alberta also runs with no debt, but a lot of that is oil money.
Australia, iirc, could have run debt free, but ended up issuing some bonds simply to provide an underlying government bond market to allow the corporate bond market to operate more freely.
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Originally Posted by clowntable
Why would that be? Money is simply a commodity just like other commodities. The only difference is that the main value of a money comes from the fact that it can be exchanged.
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The people that are against hoarding need to explain to me why exactly. Also, is hoarding in general bad or is there a certain amount you are allowed to hoard?
If there is, how did you arrive at that amount?
Maybe it is limited to certain commodities only? If so what commodities and how did you arrive at those?
But if the supply of money (aka gold) is (relatively) fixed, or grows at a rate slower than the rate of growth in other commodities/population/productive capacity, it inevitably becomes more valueable, right, because it is more scarce?
In a deflationary environment, in which prices are falling, there is an incentive to not spend on apples today, because you can buy more apples with your gold tomorrow. If this becomes too prevalent a phenomenon, then economic activity actually slows, because consumers are holding off buying stuff, and the economy shrinks
in real terms. Moreover, because the nominal interest rate has a floor at 0%, in a deflationary environment the real rate often ends up being too punitive (4% deflation + 0% nominal rate => 4% real rate) and this, too prevents economic activity, the so-called
liquidity trap.
This is deflation 101; amp's article attempted to argue that this is not the case under a gold standard, but it was not clear to me it provided any real reason why. Perhaps the article was right, atm i see no reason why.
Moreover, you never answered my question about where the government gets its extra gold from? Does it nationalize the gold mines? Does it have to run at a profit and buy gold to back increases in money?