Just a quick question.

If Villain is min-raising

-30 percent of hands?
-40 percent of hands?
-50 percent of hands?
-60 percent of hands?
-70 percent of hands?
-80 percent of hands?

How should I respond to each of these as in calling/3betting/folding and how does it change when at 20BB, 50BB and 100 BB?

If I am 3-bet bluffing at 20BB, what raise would be ideal? and what size raise would commit me to the pot if my opponent re-shoved over my 3bet at 20BB.

I know these questions obviously change between Villain, depending on his passive/aggressiveness, raising range, shoving range. But what would a general rule of thumb to combat this to be?


Thanks

I doubt you'll be pleased with the answers, all generalizations in poker are false.

One thing I can say though is that due to the dramatic randomization of the equity distributions on the flop, preflop play is remarkably similar given different villain open ranges, at least from around 50% upward.

In general the BB can be defended very wide vs a min raise, arguments about rake, reverse implied odds and positional disadvantage are usually overblown.

3 betting in the presence of strong information is primarily a function of immediate fold equity and villains 4 betting tendencies compared with the value of flatting. But comprehensively answering even a carefully defined scenario vs one opponent is far beyond the scope of what most would be willing to do for free.

Shove

Do you want these 54 ranges for 6bb or 7bb 3bet sizings?

defend roughly the same range he opens (adjust for rake)

the details you shall work out yourself