in a vacuum theres a lot of air vs air spots where you're forced to fold, i just picked some random ones

hand 1-
3x pre, villain calls
flop: 773
villain checks, hero cbets 2/3 pot, villain raises 3.25x

hand 2-
villain 3x, hero 3bets 11bb, call
flop: 935
hero cbets 1/2 pot, villain minraises

hand 3-
hero 3x, villain calls
flop: 5T8
villain checks, hero cbets 2/3 pot, villain raises 3.25x

hand 4-
hero 3x, call
flop: A34
villain checks, hero cbets 2/3 pot, villain raises 3.25x

for each hand say you're playing 100bb deep vs someone w/ your only reads being the other 3 hands(where u folded each time). so u have played maybe 20 hands , how do u mix in a range to play back at them? i mean like what hands that you'd fold readless would you raise/call with

I generally don't like flatting these kind of bets. If they happen often I try to counter them by 3betting flops. It all depends on the frequency of villian's x/r flops. The hands I'd be doing that with mostly include overcards to the board and any kind of draws.

Why do you assume villain has air "most of the time" in any of these hands if he is an unknown?

The only flop I might play back without equity against an unknown is 773, by 3bet/folding.

The rest would be spewy because of a lack of information, in my opinion.

If this is a common scenario for you, you're probably cbetting too much.

tbh if your cbetting all of them boards with absolute air then i agree with zach that your cbet% is probly way to high.

looking at those boards the only one which is a snap cbet with my entire opening range (vs an unknown) is number 2

you just defend the top x part of your bluffcatch+ range. on 773 to a 3x raise you never fold a gutshot or Ahi to a check raise, and Khi is close. on 935 to a minraise you never fold anything bar hands with undercards to the 5 (K4 for instance).

why not number 4 also?

can u explain this more clearly please?

tbh i dont understand how he can be any more clear, he's even given you example ranges to work with

got it now