Rant to follow!
Quote:
Originally Posted by Signif, I
It has been debated what sort of bluffs he could c/r turn with but not much mention has been given to how likely villain is to c/r his value hands.
In my experience most players are just bet/bet/betting their value hands in this spot as opposed to c/r with them on the turn. We need to assume he's c/r the majority of his value hands here (or almost no bluffs) if we think we have less than 40% equity.
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No, no, no. If he CR value hands with any freq over zero, then we may or may not have 40% equity here. Say he C/R a set 1/1000th of the time and CR a FD 1/10000th of the time. Do we call because he "doesn't checkraise the majority of his value hands"?
Quote:
Originally Posted by HollywoodHogan
look dude it's f'ing simple - if you call a 3bet w/ KQo w/ no history/meta (mistake, imo), then from a pure line standpoint it makes absolutely zero sense to b/f TPGK here. Forget math and everything, if you call the 3bet and bet the turn, you are not folding. If you don't think you can profitably call a raise ott, then you shoulda thought about that before betting and instead have checked back.
and no, Jason, the post angeles made is 100% accurate, think about why.
you = not just JOS but anyone thinking about playing this hand in the way JOS has suggested.
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No. Play each hand for its highest EV. If that is bet/folding, then bet/fold.
As a matter of optimal play, it's frequently correct to bet/fold the very bottom of a value betting range even if that range is polarized as it would be in this case. So, if the worst hand we vbet turn with is KQ, it might very well be at least near-optimal to bet/fold it.
Quote:
Originally Posted by OMGClayDol
assuming the bb actually has $1 how come a single person hasn't commented on the fact that both our perceived range and sbs range is surely going to be tighter?
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No. Say I decide to change my strategy by subtracting 1$ from all my bets. Now you play drastically different against me. I win.