I can't believe we still have to go through all this stuff in detail but OK...
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What if OP had the nuts? He would be sitting there trying to find the best way to get the money in then villain shows his cards and now it is bad etiquette to bet. Is this acceptable to try and deny the villain the opportunity to bet with the best hand??
You seem confused. In the OP, it was the villain who had the best hand. OP did not have the nuts. If he did, he would be forced to bet, this is a rule just look at the Robert's Rules of Tournament Poker - if it's checked to you with the nuts on the river you must bet, otherwise you are given a penalty. Nothing happened that would "deny the villain the opportunity to bet with the best hand", and your hypothetical question makes no sense.
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What if OP 'needs' to win the pot. He decides he has to bluff. Is it fair to be denied the opportunity giving him no way of retrieving the money he has invested??
Nobody 'needs' to win the pot. If they're playing a gentlemen's money game, we should assume they can afford to lose. Poker =/= roulette. Are you implying that OP, in addition to being a scumbag, is a degenerate?
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What if OP hits his draw. He loses if he misses and can't be paid if he hits??
See my answer to question 1.
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Why are people 'scumbags' for having a different opinion??
'Tis not the difference of opinion, 'tis the content of one particular opinion that OP is not a scumbag which makes his defenders ITT scumbags.
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How many times has the word scumbag been used in this thread??
Where did you learn to use two question marks all the time? And as for the last question, kindly do the leg work yourself if such trivial things are so important.