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Old 07-24-2012, 08:03 PM   #1
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40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

Villian one has lost the last few hands and is now slightly steaming.
Villian two has been on a nice heater in the last two orbits and is up 3 racks. Villian two is a passive fish who is likely to have anything remotely playable, does not understand position whatsoever.

My image is quiet, tight and the table is calling me lucky.

Villian one is UTG and opens, villian two 3, folds to me in the CO and I cap with QsQh, blinds fold and both villians calls.

Flop: 2d-3d-Jh, villian one donks, villian 2 raises, I 3, utg caps, we both call.

Turn: Ac, villian one c-bets, villian 2 calls, HERO?
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Old 07-24-2012, 08:13 PM   #2
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

I am a SD monkey, but I fold here.
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Old 07-25-2012, 04:25 AM   #3
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

I can't see folding here. UTG is tilting and you have the fish beat a ton.
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Old 07-25-2012, 11:00 AM   #4
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

If Villain one is only slightly steaming and Villain two is a passive fish, it seems like calling on the flop isn't that bad of an option either as you can often see where you are in the hand if there is a 3!
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Old 07-25-2012, 03:45 PM   #5
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

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I can't see folding here. UTG is tilting and you have the fish beat a ton.
Ya, I'm not sure how often the 2nd part is true. In my experience, "passive fish" just don't show up here with JT or 99 after this preflop & flop action.

That said, I really don't want to fold yet. Pot is big and we have a reasonably strong hand against poor players.
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Old 07-25-2012, 04:26 PM   #6
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Passive fish jams at every oppprtunity pf and on the flop and now we have QQ on an A high board.

Fold.
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Old 07-25-2012, 06:01 PM   #7
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

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Ya, I'm not sure how often the 2nd part is true. In my experience, "passive fish" just don't show up here with JT or 99 after this preflop & flop action.
I think we need some clarity on these reads from OP. Like maybe some examples of what he's seen from these guys. For example, passive guy is passive, but can have anything remotely playable.
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Old 07-26-2012, 05:08 AM   #8
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I think we need some clarity on these reads from OP. Like maybe some examples of what he's seen from these guys. For example, passive guy is passive, but can have anything remotely playable.
Yes but passive players generally will only raise when they have it... my default would be to fold here vs description.

OP are we missing some read specific info if he's passive and raising on each spot it is his action?
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Old 07-26-2012, 06:23 PM   #9
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

He is passive in terms of not raising with a bottom pair on the flop or even 77. I definitely think the least he would have would be a TP.
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Old 07-28-2012, 02:07 AM   #10
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

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He is passive in terms of not raising with a bottom pair on the flop or even 77. I definitely think the least he would have would be a TP.
Yeah but what is he 3'ing pre?
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Old 07-28-2012, 06:31 PM   #11
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I'd fold KK here.
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Old 07-28-2012, 11:57 PM   #12
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

Fold.
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Old 07-29-2012, 04:14 AM   #13
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

Don't fold.
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Old 07-30-2012, 04:51 AM   #14
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

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I'd fold KK here.
Isn't KK pretty much the same as QQ here?? I don't like a fold yet..
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Old 07-30-2012, 02:23 PM   #15
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Re: 40 vs. maniac and a passive fish

I need better reads. Is player one normally a maniac and he happens to be tilting? Or is he just a normal guy who is tilting? I fold in instance 2 and call in instance 1.
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