here is the article:
Lets see how various bet sizes do. How about $1,010? That forces him to fold his straight draw, but costs you all that money when he has his hand. Your expected value is 80 percent of $1,000 minus 20 percent of 2,010. Thats $598 which is worse than if you had checked.
The way Sklansky is getting his result -> i canīt understand.
Why is he taking 20% of 2010$
and not 20% of 1010$ (the betsize / the "risk")?
By the way: when you take 20% of 2010$, which is 402$, and then substract that fom (80%*1000=)800$ you get 398$, not 598$??
I would calculate:
80% from 1000$ (Pot) = 800$
20% from 1010$ (Bet) = 202$
which gives me an EV of 598$
Can someone check this and tell me whatīs right? Maybe he just misstyped the number? He confused me :d
Thanks a lot