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Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem

02-09-2012 , 12:13 PM
here is the article:
http://www.twoplustwo.com/magazine/i...em-problem.php


$
Quote:
Let’s see how various bet sizes do. How about $1,010? That forces him to fold his straight draw, but costs you all that money when he has his hand. Your expected value is 80 percent of $1,000 minus 20 percent of 2,010. That’s $598 which is worse than if you had checked.
The way Sklansky is getting his result -> i can´t understand.

Why is he taking 20% of 2010$ and not 20% of 1010$ (the betsize / the "risk")?
By the way: when you take 20% of 2010$, which is 402$, and then substract that fom (80%*1000=)800$ you get 398$, not 598$??

I would calculate:
80% from 1000$ (Pot) = 800$
minus
20% from 1010$ (Bet) = 202$
which gives me an EV of 598$

Can someone check this and tell me what´s right? Maybe he just misstyped the number? He confused me :d

Thanks a lot

Last edited by cubaman; 02-09-2012 at 12:37 PM.
Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem Quote
02-10-2012 , 07:23 AM
You are correct. Dead money in the pot does not belong to us.
Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem Quote
02-14-2012 , 11:15 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by cubaman
here is the article:
http://www.twoplustwo.com/magazine/i...em-problem.php


$

The way Sklansky is getting his result -> i can´t understand.

Why is he taking 20% of 2010$ and not 20% of 1010$ (the betsize / the "risk")?
By the way: when you take 20% of 2010$, which is 402$, and then substract that fom (80%*1000=)800$ you get 398$, not 598$??

I would calculate:
80% from 1000$ (Pot) = 800$
minus
20% from 1010$ (Bet) = 202$
which gives me an EV of 598$

Can someone check this and tell me what´s right? Maybe he just misstyped the number? He confused me :d

Thanks a lot
You're both coming up with the same answer (598). I agree David's explanation is a little awkward.

Last edited by au4all; 02-14-2012 at 11:22 PM.
Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem Quote
02-28-2012 , 05:03 PM
The mistake is in the following part;

"Let’s see how various bet sizes do. How about $1,010? That forces him to fold his straight draw, but costs you all that money when he has his hand. Your expected value is 80 percent of $1,000 minus 20 percent of 2,010. That’s $598 which is worse than if you had checked."

The lost should be 20 percent of 1010, which is the correct way to calculate EV.
Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem Quote
03-02-2012 , 05:19 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by cubaman
here is the article:
http://www.twoplustwo.com/magazine/i...em-problem.php


$

The way Sklansky is getting his result -> i can´t understand.

Why is he taking 20% of 2010$ and not 20% of 1010$ (the betsize / the "risk")?
By the way: when you take 20% of 2010$, which is 402$, and then substract that fom (80%*1000=)800$ you get 398$, not 598$??

I would calculate:
80% from 1000$ (Pot) = 800$
minus
20% from 1010$ (Bet) = 202$
which gives me an EV of 598$

Can someone check this and tell me what´s right? Maybe he just misstyped the number? He confused me :d

Thanks a lot
You're right. He made a mistake. I'll give 3 ways of computing the EV:
  1. .80*1000 - .20*1010 = 598
  2. .80*2010 - 1010 = 598
  3. 1000 - .20*2010 = 598
It appears DS got #1 mixed up with #3 with his:
.80*1000 - .20*2010 = 398
He actually wrote the right answer 598 using an incorrect method that should have yielded the incorrect 398.
Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem Quote
04-08-2012 , 02:52 AM
Does OP win a prize now?

Nice find!
Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem Quote

      
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