Quote:
Originally Posted by Colin252
The simple math for how often a pure bluff needs to work is:
Risk (our bet) / Risk + reward (reward being the pot).
50/(50+100)=.33 or 33%.
Thats our starting point.
In the KT case, lets say only our flush are good outs, so 9x2 18% (closer 19 but w/e).
So our risk of 50 turns into 50 - 18% of (our bet 50 + his call 50 + the flop pot 100).
so 18% of 200 is 36, so our real risk is only 14 chips.
You wanna risk 14 chips to win 100? He only has to fold a little over 12% now. HELL YEAH
I lost you at the 18% of the total pot (Our bet + his call + pot already there). Why take the chance of making your flush and the total pot?
And why do we have to subtract it from 50 (Maybe I get it but I ain't sure, for example:
If he has the nuts and we bluff , our 18% would be 0% as we dont have a chance to win. Meaning the 50 always will turn into a 50 loss. Even if we get the outs.
And secondly , to just confirm : This "just over 12%" is just in order to make profit? If it was 14% we would be breaking even right?
would this mean I have to bet 50% when drawing a flush?
Reading ur last line my question is what we want to achieve here? Don't we want to achieve to hit the flush and get value instead of getting him to fold on the flop ? (if you get him to fold on the flop you achieve the same as the initial problem: check until u hit -> bet and he folds)