i study the theory of poker book and at the bluffing chapter i saw this example.
""You should not bluff if you think the chances your
opponent will call are too great in relation to the pot odds you are
getting. You should if you think your opponent will fold often
enough for a bluff to show a profit. If there is $100 in the pot, you
should make a $20 bluff if you think your opponent will fold more
than once in six times. If there is $60 in the pot, you must assume
your opponent will fold more than once in four times before you
try to bluff. If there is $ 140 in the pot, your opponent needs to fold
more than once in eight times.""
then isaw that ....."""There is $80 in the pot, and you think you can get
away with a bluff one out of three times. Clearly this is an
extremely profitable bluffing situation. Once you will win $80,and twice you will lose $20 for a net profit of $40 or an average"""
whats the deference between once in six times and one out of 3 times in ratio and
fraction??english isnt my original language and i dont understand it.