***** Official Dumb Questions Thread **** - Page 596 - Beginning Poker Questions

smithycat · 07-06-2012, 09:23 AM

can anyone direct me to the best thread on hyper turbos and how they are unbeatable talk

jspill · 07-06-2012, 10:04 AM

google site:forumserver.twoplustwo.com hyperturbos unbeatable

easier than using 2+2 search function

Kala · 07-06-2012, 04:09 PM

Hi. What is a 3 outer?

My guess is, it's something like this:
-I go allin preflop with 99, I get called by Q7 and I lose. So I could say I lost to a 3 outer here?

**Cry Me A River** · 07-06-2012, 06:07 PM

An X outer is when there are only X specific cards in the deck that can beat you. A 1 outer means there is only one card that can beat you (player with a set needs to hit quads or a he has a gutshot straight flush draw [and hitting flush or straight won't help him ie; ie; you have quads or nut flush]). A 2 outer means there are two cards that can beat you (overpair vs underpair where the underpair has no other draws and needs to hit a set). Etc

WeakTight.eh · 07-06-2012, 10:14 PM

Hey doods. If I have a video of myself playing 100NL and want to invite people to discuss/critique my play, where should I post it? I'm not sure whether the 2+2 videos section is the correct place.

ckmarcus · 07-07-2012, 09:08 AM

2+2 must be rigged since I can't seem to win when posting about riggtardedness in the Dumb Questions thread. Perhaps I need to find the Online Poker Is Rigged thread in the Internet Poker area of 2+2. Pretty sure that King Spew linked me there last week.

rackoblue · 07-09-2012, 04:50 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by marchron

I've always wondered if there was a term for this. Let's say I have KQ against one opponent and flop something like KQ7. The turn is a 4, the river pairs the 7, and I lose to AA.

This isn't "counterfeiting," because as I understand it counterfeiting alters your hand. For example, if I had K4 on the above board, the river changes my hand from Kings over Fours to Kings over Sevens because the river seven counterfeited my pair of fours. Whereas in this hand, I flopped Kings over Queens, at the end my hand is still Kings over Queens, but I lose because AA has used the board pair to make Aces-up.

I dunno, it seems like there oughtta be a word for this. Other than "SONOFAGODDAMNBITCHYACHACHACHACH!", I mean.

Also, why does the title of this thread have five asterisks on one side and only four on the other?

They drew out on you. Sucked out. freaking river rat. LOL

rackoblue · 07-09-2012, 05:27 AM

Do the odds of all hands lose value when the game is 10 handed if you also consider that the pot odds often would be higher?

TheDefiniteArticle · 07-09-2012, 08:08 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by rackoblue

Do the odds of all hands lose value when the game is 10 handed if you also consider that the pot odds often would be higher?

If you're asking whether hands have less value in a 10-handed game as opposed to a 9-handed game, yes they do, especially from early position. The pot odds would only be higher if you're playing in a limpy game (and you should make the appropriate adjustments for that, like playing more speculative hands etc).

Tarkyo · 07-09-2012, 08:15 AM

If you are down with $1.95, will you go for 2NL or the $1.35+$0.15 SnG?

Just asking. I know it is a poor BRM. Just want to know which game will you go if you are left with $1.95 and it is your last buy-in.

TheDefiniteArticle · 07-09-2012, 12:18 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Tarkyo

If you are down with $1.95, will you go for 2NL or the $1.35+$0.15 SnG?

Just asking. I know it is a poor BRM. Just want to know which game will you go if you are left with $1.95 and it is your last buy-in.

I'd buy into 2NL with 40bb. And play the freerolls.

SickStackStrategy · 07-09-2012, 09:48 PM

this has nothing to do with poker rules but where can I exchange money from a poker site to another? I used to know but has been too long.

jspill · 07-09-2012, 10:35 PM

^ http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/28...ng-rules-1529/

SickStackStrategy · 07-09-2012, 11:05 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by jspill

^ http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/28...ng-rules-1529/

Thank you!

BJballs · 07-10-2012, 01:36 PM

I can't really figure out if my logic is bad here.

I have a 500 hand sample on villain. His 3bet%:1, 4bet%:unavailable and F3b%:38
I have him marked as a fish playing 32/12.

Based on the above stats, I would characterize villain as loose and passive.

Because his 3bet% is 1 over 500 hands, is it safe to assume his 4bet% is going to be really low?