Quote:
Originally Posted by News777
This was discussed partially on the ESPN WSOP coverage. Let's say your playing the WSOP and all the decks from the playing card company have a marking on the back on the back of the cards that only you notice. It is so imperceptible that due to your perfect eyesight you spot. It is not necessarily a defect but you were the one that spotted it. Every other player has the same ability to notice it that you do but they don't. Is it considered cheating if you exploit it and know your opponents cards.
Is it right that Phil is dealt a baccarat game that another gambler doesn't have the same chance to exploit. As a casino shouldn't every player be afforded the same odds. Not necessarily the same perks as a high roller but the same odds. Not talking about card counting. Every player can count cards if they choose to learn. Phil on the other hand is dealt a game that another player might know about but the casino won't grant that player the same conditions. Even if that said player is willing to put up the same amount of money.
I may be oversimplifying, but to me there are two separate worlds colliding in the scenarios above:
1) What's legal?
2) What's moral/right?
In your first scenario, I'd venture a guess that many would say doing that would be immoral. But is it illegal? I think Caesars, even if they found out that was the case, would have a tough time prosecuting anyone for essentially being more observant than anyone else and using it to their advantage. In my opinion this isn't cheating. That's a slippery slope - what if you get a tell on someone no one else has...is using that cheating? Just because it's an observation about the equipment (the cards) versus an observation about an opponent doesn't make a difference to me. By the way, to my own detriment, I'd feel guilty forever if I won a bunch of money because of a scenario like this, so I'd inevitably say something about a defect or mark to the floor.
Your second scenario depends on gaming laws. Not sure what the laws are in London, but whether it's "right" or not I'm not sure. Does the other guy willing to put up the same money ask for the same things? If he doesn't and therefore doesn't have the same advantage Phil did, then it might not be "right" but maybe it's legal? To me the impetus in this situation is more on the casino - is it "right" for them to be willing to offer a different game to one guy and not the same game to the other? Again, though same answer - can they lawfully do that or not? If they can, then it becomes a moral question.