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Originally Posted by Geezer Soze
If by "what they were doing", you mean "offering real money online poker to individuals in the United States", the Settlement does not say it was illegal to have done so.
It doesn't say that, no. But it is certainly implied
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"This Stipulation and Order of Settlement shall in no way be deemed an admission of any wrongdoing, culpability, liability, or guilt on behalf of the PokerStars Companies or any of their respective agents, officers or employees, past and present."
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yes, yes Well, they got them to stop and pay a fine, an admission is really irrelevant
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"Nothing in this Stipulation and Order of Settlement is intended to or shall limit the PokerStars Companies and their present or future affiliates from offering real-money online poker to individuals within the United States (including under the PokerStars or the Full Tilt Group's brands) if and when it becomes permissible to do so under relevant law."
See that? ^^ There's your smoking gun. "If and when" = "not at this time"
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I get your belief that something is illegal unless it is expressly legal, but that is not US law.
That is not my claim at all. But you seem to be claiming because you don't know what relevant statute makes it illegal, it therefore is legal.
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I would suggest the Settlement used the words "permissible" under "relevant law" to avoid argument, as no wrongdoing was admitted. (Remember that during the time of these discussions DOJ had tossed in the towel with respect to coverage of online poker under the Federal Wire Act.)
So, it was legal then but isn't legal now? If it's legal now, why aren't they just doing it?
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There is no criminal common law. Unless something is expressly illegal to do, doing it is not criminal. A State which seeks to punish "illegal" activity must have a statute on its books that expressly makes the activity a criminal act and then prove conduct satisfying every element of the crime. Even the IGBA does not come into play absent some State statutory violation.
This is not strictly true. Some things are prohibited within state constitutions. For instance in my state, all gambling is prohibited by the state constitution unless specifically excepted through statute. I doubt WA is the only one.
(FWIW, I wrote a piece for onlinepokerreport.com two years ago detailing how Pokerstars' activity violated state and federal law prior to their leaving the market, something they did after legal challenge to their explicit prohibition failed, but some four years after it went into effect. The assertions I made in that piece have not been refuted by Pokerstars, though they were given the opportunity, nor anyone else)
Pokerstars wasn't licensed to operate in any state, so any state with licensing requirements for gambling has a statute on the books that Pokerstars violated.
Again, if it were legal to do so, they would have resumed operations.
The civil case against Pokerstars was dismissed with prejudice, which means they were absolved from past actions. There were not cleared of wrong doing, or 'exculpated' as Steve Ruddock put it in his latest defense of pokerstars story.
You seem to be trying to make the argument that "it was legal then, but they agreed not to do it anymore until it was legal-er"
that argument is idiotic
end of derail