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Originally Posted by 1938ford
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If you don't know the odds or are interesting in learning about them you can ask the casino and they will provide with that information. It is not a secret.
Is this even true?
Or you are just saying they will provide you with the payout structures, and thus, if you intelligent and capable enough you can figure out the odds.
I honestly, don't know whether it is true or not, but I would be surprised if the casino would provide a player direct odds of winning a hand or the EV of a given bet if asked.
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In the Crockford's case the casino NEVER agreed to any rules "rigged" against them. The mere fact that you use the word "rigged" confirms that even you understand the outcome was changed by deception. You can NOT "rig" a game and not be cheating!!!!
From the Urban Dictionary:
1. The word rigged is used to describe situations where unfair advantages are given to one side of a conflict.
2. Describes the side of the a conflict that holds an unfair advantage.
I was using "rigged" colloquially. I.E, the game being setup in a way that favors a party in the long run.
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It IS CHEATING! You no longer have to believe me, ask the judge!!!!
Yes, I understand the decision that the judge made. Your argument is circular. It is his very judgement that is being questioned itt by some people. I obv disagree with his judgement.
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If knowing the value of the cards in the deck was the purpose for his requests he should have asked the casino for this information prior to playing.
Again, we disagree. I don't think there is any legal reason he needs to give them a motive for his request. The casino can either accept it or deny it. And let's be honest, if the casino wanted to deny it, they would have done it no matter what reason he had given.
Is it illegal to tell another poker player that the reason you decided to go all in on the flop with a big draw was that you just felt like it was coming? When the real reason is that you estimated an overwhelming amount of fold equity, and thus realize it was a +EV move. How can you even prove that is or isn't the case anyway. Correlation doesn't lead to causation. Maybe it's just something about being in a +EV situation that gets your superstitious juices going. What does superstition even mean anyway and how is it provable?
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I love how you want to use the word "hustle" in this context as if it were an acceptable business practice.
Again, there are nuances in how the word hustle can be used. It can be used for straight out fraud or it can just mean that you are getting someone to gamble when the odds are in your favor.
I obv see a distinction here, and you don't. I understand that.
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If an old friend, someone you often play against online, sends you an email with an attachment that says "see the naked woman" and you click on the picture that shows a picture of a naked woman; Are you responsible for anything and everything that may happen as a result of agreeing to look at the picture? What if in clicking on the attachment you also caused spyware to be downloaded so that the old friend could now see your display. He waits for you to play some online poker, joins the same game and use his new "advantage" of knowledge of the cards you hold to beat you for all your money. Did he cheat you? I mean, using your logic it was you pressed the button and agreed to look at the picture. So what if you didn't understand the consequences. That's your problem, right? So what if he lied to you about the true purpose in sending you the picture? You should have known better. All he did was take advantage of the fact that he knew you probably liked pictures of naked women and knew you trusted him. That was just his advantage, right? You could have just said no. Since he is a person always looking for an advantage this must not be cheating.
Sorry, this is not a 1 to 1 parity of the situation by any stretch of the imagination. There are obviously ways to illegally hustle, and there are nuances in every individual situation.
I can agree that the Ivey case is in the grey area.
Hacking and related activities is illegal (in the USA anyway), so your example blatantly breaks local and/or international laws straight away.
I understand your point, but it really is an exagerated example with clear cut illegality from start to finish.
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No it is not. What "SKILL" did Ivey use to win money. What particular ability did he have and use to tilt the odds of the game in his favor. Was it superior math skills like a card counter might use? Was it his extraordinary athletic ability? What special knowledge did he possess about the game that he used to win? Was he just a better player with a better understanding of the game than his opponent or did he lie to create an opportunity to change the natural order and position of the cards so as to create an advantage for himself? Could he have obtained this advantage in any other way besides lying to the casino and manipulating or causing the cards to be manipulated? I think not!
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You want to fail to consider that the casino would never have agreed to allow Ivey to know the value of the cards in the deck, which is what his scheme ultimately allowed.
I completely understand that if Ivey completely spelled out his terms and strategy that they would have disagreed.
I also believe that if the casino blatantly spelled out the fact that a placed bet was explicitly EV-, as well as how EV- it was to all customers, there would be an overwhelmingly significant portion of customers who would choose to quit.
Both Ivey and the casinos deceptions are both legal imo, unlike other forms of deception which are criminally fraudulent. (see below)
Even if I was willing to accept Urban Dictionary quotes as an absolute truth, you keep trying to prove your point with semantics.
Criminal fraud may use deception, but that doesn't mean that all deception is criminal fraud.