Quote:
Originally Posted by LowSociety
Can someone explain to me why it is that someone in a later seat is not able to ask a simple rules question? How can it influence the action to state the rules, unless the action was about to be based on a misunderstanding of the rules? Wouldn't it be good if clarifying the rules affects the action?
What if the dealer said "call or fold" on his own? That's not an OPTAH violation. It happens frequently. Therefore, how can a question from anyone that leads to that same info being stated be wrong? That rule can be on a plaque on the wall right next to the player whose turn it is to act.
It is because the asking of the question carries withit certain implications...
Lets take out the rules question for a minute. Suppose their is no all in. Just a bet.
Player B is thinking about calling the bet. When all of a sudden player F says? Hey A just remember that if you call this bet Players C,D,E, or F might raise you.
Would you agree that is out of line? Does it somehow become acceptable by phrasing it as a question to the dealer? Hey Dealer, if player B calls the bet, Can Players C,D,E,F raise it?
I don't see why making it a question to the dealer suddenly would make this acceptable.
Now if Player F legitimately needs a rules question answered before he can act, then at least by waiting for his turn to act we minimize the influence his question has on the action. And clearly Player F has no need to have this information before he acts ... so if he insists on asking it before his turn ... it must be because he is trying to influence player B.