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 08-30-2012, 05:46 PM #1 journeyman     Join Date: Jan 2010 Location: Bios Posts: 371 What are the chances of 2 people flopping a pair on a flop On a random flop with 4 random players flop comes X X X and let's say I catch a mid pair what are the chances of other 3 players having a higher pair or no pair or the lower pair?
 08-30-2012, 10:25 PM #2 Carpal \'Tunnel     Join Date: Feb 2006 Location: Austin, TX Posts: 14,927 Re: What are the chances of 2 people flopping a pair on a flop You still haven't figured out that the answer to these questions depends on the range of villains? And the cards on the board? Or do you really literally mean vs 4 totally random hands?
 08-31-2012, 03:28 AM #3 journeyman     Join Date: Jan 2010 Location: Bios Posts: 371 Re: What are the chances of 2 people flopping a pair on a flop you have a good memory lol that was flush and straight, and also everyone said something different. but yeah totally random hands and no history about villains
 08-31-2012, 09:31 AM #4 veteran   Join Date: Mar 2009 Location: In the wires Posts: 2,259 Re: What are the chances of 2 people flopping a pair on a flop Did you want the chance that at least one of the 3 players has a pair after the flop or that all 3 of them have a pair after the flop? The chance a player with random hole cards has a pair after the flop is ~53%. This includes any hand with at least one matching rank (pair, trips, 2 pair, full, quads). 1 - (44/47 * 40/46 * 36/45 * 32/44) = 52.6% We can then approximate the chance at least one of 3 players hits using: 1 - (1-.526)^3 = ~89%
09-03-2012, 10:30 PM   #5
journeyman

Join Date: Jan 2010
Location: Bios
Posts: 371
Re: What are the chances of 2 people flopping a pair on a flop

Quote:
 Originally Posted by NewOldGuy Did you want the chance that at least one of the 3 players has a pair after the flop or that all 3 of them have a pair after the flop? The chance a player with random hole cards has a pair after the flop is ~53%. This includes any hand with at least one matching rank (pair, trips, 2 pair, full, quads). 1 - (44/47 * 40/46 * 36/45 * 32/44) = 52.6% We can then approximate the chance at least one of 3 players hits using: 1 - (1-.526)^3 = ~89%
how about, after 3 other players seing the flop, but 2 fold to a bet which let's say they didn't have anything on a flop not even a low pair, and it's a heads up me vs other player what are the chances of him only having a top pair? not inluding trips 2 pairs... for example on a flop K Q 2 rainbow and I have AQ and chances of him having anything with K and/or AA? vs a random hand/player

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