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Originally Posted by suitedandzooted
but in holdem if the first player is dealt an ace, it lowers the second players chances of being dealt an ace too.
To make the analogy even better, I should have been talking about deuces since those are cards we don't want.
The simplest explanation is that the cards have an equal chance of being in each spot in the deck (and Bruce made the equivalent explanation with chambers). But what's tripping you up is something else which this gun-to-head scenario emphasizes more effectively than the hold'em problem. There's another way of understanding why it's equal which is perhaps more satisfying/convincing for the russian roulette case because it illustrates exactly why one's intuition is wrong.
Hold'em
- If 1st player gets a deuce, 2nd player's chances of getting one decrease.
- If 1st player doesn't get one, 2nd player's chances of getting on increase.
Russian Roulette
- If 1st player gets the bullet, 2nd player's chances of getting it decrease (to zero).
- If 1st player gets the bullet, 2nd player's chances of getting it increase.
The only differences are that there's only one bullet as opposed to 4 deuces, and there are 52 "chambers" in hold'em instead of 6.
That's why I suggested, suppose 3 of the deuces are removed from the deck. That doesn't change the fact that both players have an equal chance of getting the deuce.
The increases always cancel out with the decreases. While the decreases have a bigger impact, they happen much less often. The greater impact is exactly proportional to the lower frequency and so they cancel out.
In holdem with a 49 card deck:
48/49 of the time the 2nd player will have a 1/48 chance of getting the deuce (and 1/48 is an increase of 1/2352 from 1/49).
1/49 of the time he'll have a 0% chance (a decrease of 1/49 from 1/49).
The decrease of 1/49 in the 2nd scenario is 48 times as big an impact as the increase of 1/2352 in the first scenario. But the 1st scenario happens 48 times as often. So we have essentially 48 * 1/48 = 1, the relative impact and relative frequency canceling to relative sameness.
Pr(2nd player deuce) = 48/49 * 1/48 = 1/49 (same as 1st player's chance)
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One last thought... Is this anything like headsup nlh where statistically speaking before the cards are dealt there is a 50% chance either the button or the bb will have the best hand at the end of the hand if it is showed down, BUT the button has the statistical advantage because of post flop play/being 2nd to act on all post flop streets(getting to pull the trigger 2nd)????
Not really. The button's only advantage is information. He gets to make his decisions with more information than his opponent, namely he already saw his opponent's move. In Russian roulette, if played fairly there is no skill, no choices, and therefore no advantage is gained by having better information.
It's an understandable instinct to not want to be the first to partially commit suicide. Myself, I thought about my preference before and decided I'd rather go first to have the better fractions. But thinking about it again now, I'm leaning to be 2nd player. There's only a 3.33% difference between 5/6 and 4/5. I feel like #2's only real sweat is the 2/3 pull, whereas 1st player has to sweat a 3/4 and a 1/2, plus go first. Sure the 2nd player has to face a 0 at the end but it probably won't get that far. Ofc these are all irrational thoughts because mathematically it's the same.
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I think my survival instinct is trying to make me reneg on me understanding the math now.
This is an interesting point, I guess Monty Hall isn't the only math problem that can present psychological barriers to people. Mixing in psychological aspects forces one to really grasp the math concepts; I will remember this if I'm ever teaching courses. I can make it a problem on the test. They'll already be nervous during a test, and now they'll have a question where they have to imagine firing a gun at their own head. Cruel but effective =)