Originally Posted by wykh
Here is a royal I flopped not so long ago. I have actually flopped 2 in my limited poker career.
This one the cards also came out in order. Would I be right in saying the chances of that are (4)*(1/52*1/51*1/50*1/49*1/48) = 1/77968800?
This was on FT at the end of a long tourney. One player had raised preflop and I called. When the flop came down I checked and the only other player folded without even checking. Seems odd when he could have checked for free. I finished the MTT in second place.
This is correct if you "assign" the direction from right to left on your cards and the flop. But isn't this observation a little result oriented?
The chance to flop a RF in any order is 120 times that as said in previous posts.
If you want to do the calculation starting from the probability of each permutation which is 1/52*1/51*1/50*1/49*1/48 you multiply by 4 due the possible suits, by 10 = C(5,2) since you can have any 2 of the possible holecards, by 2 since your holecards will appear in 2 ways from right to left and finally by 6 due to the number of ways the flop cards can be ordered from right to left. Don't know if it's easier that way though.