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Calling VS Different Betsizes Calling VS Different Betsizes

07-24-2017 , 06:11 PM
Hello!

lets say, villain bets the river and he uses 2 different betsizes:

1) he bets 40% pot
2) he bets 75% pot

We assume we win against half of his range and lose against half of his range.

We assume that if he bets 40% pot, he has the range that we beat 70% of the time and the range that we lose against 30% of the time.

We assume that if he bets 75% pot, we lose 70% of the time and win 30% of the time.


Now in this scenario, if we only called his 40% potsized bets, we'd end up with a profit of 86%.

If we called his 75% potsized bets, we'd end up exactly break-even.


My question now is: Would it be a mistake to call the 75% potsized bets? Should I only call the 40% potsized bets? Do I end up with more profit if I only ever call the 40% potsized bets?
Calling VS Different Betsizes Quote
07-27-2017 , 03:22 AM
Quote:
We assume we win against half of his range and lose against half of his range.
I assume this is his range that got to the river before you see how he bets? I think that is irrelevant when you say this:

Quote:
We assume that if he bets 40% pot, he has the range that we beat 70% of the time and the range that we lose against 30% of the time.

We assume that if he bets 75% pot, we lose 70% of the time and win 30% of the time.
this comes down to basic pot odds. formula for that is 100%*(his bet)/(pot before his bet + 2*his bet). so when he bets only 40%, you need 22.22% equity to call and you have 70% so this is a call. if he bets 75%, you're getting pot odds of 30% which is exactly equal to your equity so in this situation you're indifferent towards both options. so I guess gto would be call 50% of the time, fold 50%.
Calling VS Different Betsizes Quote
07-30-2017 , 01:57 PM
Ty, havent looked in here in a while!
Calling VS Different Betsizes Quote

      
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