Long time lurker in HP, Very occasional poster, but I always get lots of useful info from reading, I got our new Venerati chip set as a result of info posted here, and all the players at my game love them (as do I.)

So I run/deal/play in a friendly game that has gone on for years here in our fair city, and one of our rules has always been that a single oversize chip responding to action is considered a call if nothing is said to the contrary. So a hand came up where after the flop, it was heads up, player A bet $6, and player B who had only 2 $5 chips, responded by throwing both of his chips into the middle, without saying anything. As I was describing the action, I said "Call," and player A said player B was all in because it was more than one chip, but I thought with the bet being $6, the first $5 chip covered the first $5 of the bet, then the second chip was a single oversize chip to the rest of player A's bet. They agreed to get it all in, but I wanted to know if player B's action constituted an all-in. Thanks for your input.

I would lean towards a call, but I could accept a ruling either way here, even though it is the ONE chip rule. However, in this case I will generally ask the player what his intent was before action proceeds.

As per WSOP rules this would be a call.

Oversized Chip Betting: Putting a single oversized chip or multiple same-denomination chips into the pot will be considered a call if the Participant doesn’t announce a raise. For example, pre-flop, blinds are 200-400: A raises to 1,200 total (an 800 raise), B puts out two 1,000 chips without declaring raise. This is just a call because removing one 1,000 chip leaves less than the amount needed to call the 1,200 bet. To make a raise with a single oversized chip, a verbal declaration must be made before the chip hits the table surface. If a Participant says "Raise" as an oversized chip is placed into the pot (with the word Raise being announced prior to the chip landing on the table surface), but doesn’t state the amount, the raise will be the maximum allowable up to the denomination of that chip. After the flop, an initial bet of a single oversized chip without comment will signify a bet equal to the size of the chip.

In a casino it is a call. In our home game, we stop and ask the player, is that a call or raise to 10?

+1

I will generally ask in all cases. We have players who are casino veterans who know most rules, and we also have poker noobs who don't know a gut-shot from their knee. Just ask.

That said, if one of the seasoned players does it, I'll ask and warn.

Me: "Is that a call or an all-in?"
Vet: "Oh, all-in."
Me: "Watch out for the over-sized chip rule. Next time it's a call."
Vet: "Yeah, yeah. Give me another $60."

In my response, which I was typing as you posted, I was hesitant to use the word raise. Since we know it's not a raise. The shove for $10 does not reopen the betting.

HOME POKER

Stop and ask.

I rule it a call, if pushed to make a ruling (see updated oversized chips rule). Prefer to ask when at home.

It is a raise, and depending on house rules, may re-open the betting. Bet $6, raise of $4 to $10. It's more than 50% of a required raise, and could be deemed enough to re-open the betting. Subject to house rules.

That depends on house rules. And it is a raise, now you just need to figure out if it is a legal raise.

But it is really a moot point as it is heads-up. Betting won't be re-opened no matter what since the raise is an all-in.

Technically a call, but as always:

^^^^^ This! ^^^^^

This is a limit rule. In big-bet games, you need a complete raise to reopen the betting:

Same here.

Or, more likely I'd announce the $6 and yield to an objection that it was $10 if the action hadn't moved on.

funny, this is such a common occurrence in our game amongst new players that the regulars use this as an angle. typical is: (.25-.50 nlhe) a couple of calls with $1 chips, new player throws in $5 chip, guy to his left snap throws in .50, new guy says "uh $5 to go.", angler says, "sorry bro, that was a call." I wouldn't typically call this a full angle, but I know well enough that the seasoned guy is trying to get in cheap against someone who is going to overplay a premium hand post flop.
I am always an "intention and good of the game" guy, so I try and be fair, but 1 big chip in this spot is usually ruled a called.
The weirdness in your case is the original bettor is arguing that its a raise. IMHO, he doesn't have that power at all. He can argue its a call, but he certainly can't argue its a raise. The "raiser" can argue for both sides, not the other guy.

Welcome! Join our play money Pokerstars league!

This is an all-in, provided that was the player's intent.

"Intro stakes" games have their own special rule bendiness. A player all-in also has some special rule exceptions.

If you want to be Nitty McNitterson, Mayor of Nitsville and Emperor of Nitstonia.... Well, okay, I can see your argument that it's a call.

Thankfully for me I can use Rule #1 and say it's an all-in. Also thankfully I have never seen it be an issue in a casino, at any stakes. And I see it come up often enough (usually in tourneys).

Mostly this.


It's a call in both places, for me, but I'll usually give them the option of going all-in. I doubt this is a $3/6 limit game, so we won't worry about the re-opening part.

Only 39 to go! Not sure what you'll be able to cover in the upcoming milestone post, given your Well.... but, I expect a good one, regardless.

Uh oh.