Join Date: Jun 2012
Posts: 50
Short version: Can a player who called an incomplete raise all-in re-raise if a player behind him makes a complete raise?
Long version:
Home game rake-free
Blinds are $1/$2. Playing NL cash game. All action is pre-Flop
Jason UTG calls $2
Roy calls $2
Tom calls $2
The dealer, Doug raises $11 to $13 total
SB folds
BB, Danny re-raises to $25 which is a complete raise
Jason then pushes all-in for $36 (incomplete raise)
Roy calls
Tom goes all-in for $59 which everyone agrees is a complete raise
The dealer Doug then asks to clarify that Roy will not have the option to re-raise because Doug says Roy lost that option since he only called the incomplete raise previously.
Everyone else at the table said Roy would have the option to re-raise since a player behind him made a complete raise. That's what we went with.
Did we rule correctly?