Short version: Can a player who called an incomplete raise all-in re-raise if a player behind him makes a complete raise?

Long version:
Home game rake-free
Blinds are $1/$2. Playing NL cash game. All action is pre-Flop
Jason UTG calls $2
Roy calls $2
Tom calls $2
The dealer, Doug raises $11 to $13 total
SB folds
BB, Danny re-raises to $25 which is a complete raise
Jason then pushes all-in for $36 (incomplete raise)
Roy calls
Tom goes all-in for $59 which everyone agrees is a complete raise
The dealer Doug then asks to clarify that Roy will not have the option to re-raise because Doug says Roy lost that option since he only called the incomplete raise previously.
Everyone else at the table said Roy would have the option to re-raise since a player behind him made a complete raise. That's what we went with.

Did we rule correctly?

Yes.

To simplify these cases, just 'mentally' replace Jason's $36 action with a $25 call;
Danny raises to 25
Jason calls 25 and is all-in
Roy calls 25
Tom raises to 59 all-in
...what can Roy do? Of course he can raise.

Yes. Roy is facing a legal raise. He will have all options open to him when it is his turn again.

Yes, whatever he called in the past, is not limiting to what his future options are.

The mistake people make with these issues is they think in terms of whether the all-in closes a players action ..... but that is never the issue. The issue is whether an all-in bet REOPENS betting which was already closed.

In this case you don't have to ask that question because another player has made a bet which reopens the betting anyway.

Thank you for the responses. I can always count on the twoplustwo community.