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Originally Posted by 5ive
What's this referring to?
Several fundamental, radical violations on the domestic front including against freedom of the press, privacy, and habeas corpus.
To keep it simple let's just discuss the assassination of a U.S. citizen and, in a separate attack, his teenage son, sans trial, sans charges, sans conviction- just straight to execution. Does the fact that these people were of Arab of ancestry mean that they have no rights as U.S. citizens? Or what was the justification for this?
To back up and provide a sentence or two of context, the right to a trial is a fundamental tenet in the Western philosophy of justice, with a pedigree tracing back to the Magna Carta. Policies forbidding assassinations of foreigners have been infringed on for decades, with Clinton making a lot of strides there in allowing the U.S. government to kill who it wants. As well the revelations into cointel pro and other similar programs show assassinations of citizen dissidents as covert policy. However, the government openly saying it has lawfully assassinated a U.S. citizen without a trial is a much deeper attack on civil rights. I find it hard to think of an attack on civil rights more direct than the government saying "I have the right to kill you, a U.S. citizen, because I project that you might, some day, engage in planning an attack against other U.S. citizens".
Why do you even have to ask me what I am referring to with this astonishing trespass against the most fundamental principles of civil rights just openly standing? You know that Trump's efforts to do the same thing are greatly enhanced by Obama's accomplishments, right? Trump can do anything that Obama did with very robust political cover, not to mention much less backlash from his own constituency than Obama got from the democrats (which was pathetically inadequate). That includes using secret courts to justify just about whatever his team wants.