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Another poker etiquette question Another poker etiquette question

12-19-2013 , 11:28 PM
Same villain sat down at the table with me yesterday, maybe he was just in a bad mood last time. I sympathized with him as he got stacked 3 times when he got his money in good. He was more friendly this time, more human.

A similar sort of thing happened to him in a big 4 way pot, villain was first to act and on the river and he lead out. One player folded out of turn and then another player did the same.. It was then HU and the player who was next to act shoved. Villain was furious at the advantage they had mistakenly given the other player and folded before berating both of them.

**** happens, I spoke to him later and admittedly he said he shouldn't have 4bet. Just to clarify the casino I play out is pretty doggy, insulting other people is unfortunately standard not that it is an excuse. No matter what happens you won't get kicked out for that sort of thing. FWIW I'm playing in Australia, calling someone a d***head is very tame.

Spoiler:
Villain was wearing the same shirt.. haha
12-22-2013 , 09:08 PM
12-25-2013 , 07:15 PM
If OP had a $5 chip up for the blind, it was raised to $6, then he threw in another $5 chip and SAID NOTHING it should have still been ruled a call (single oversized chip rule applies). If he said anything with the word call, this makes it even more clearly a call.

How would the dealer think he said "this is not a call". Has anyone ever said that before? I might rule it a call even if he had said that, as he didn't clearly say raise or a dollar amount, and again single oversized chip rule is stronger than ambiguous wording.
12-25-2013 , 07:27 PM
Dealer made a ruling and villain is just playing off that ruling. If villain knows there was dealer error then this is poor etiquette, otherwise I don't really see much wrong here
12-25-2013 , 11:20 PM
It's M&B...


I woulda issued a KITN to dealer and V, racked up and moved up in stakes to where they respect my calls.
03-22-2014 , 09:43 AM
Not reading this entire thread, so my apologies if this was stated previously, but using two reds facing a $6 bet is a call anyway...at least in every room I've ever played in.
03-22-2014 , 07:42 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Iuomo
Not reading this entire thread, so my apologies if this was stated previously, but using two reds facing a $6 bet is a call anyway...at least in every room I've ever played in.
What you missed in the OP was that it was a 1/2 game, and the guy raised to 6, not bet 6. So he raised 4 on top of the 2 blind. That means the min raise would be another 4, to 10. Hence the confusion about whether it was a call or raise.

According to RROP, 2 red chips would be a call, since neither red chip alonewould cover the 6. But let's say the guy raised only 2 to 4 total. Then tossing out two reds without saying anything would be a raise, since one red chip alone covers the 4.
03-25-2014 , 06:04 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by browser2920
What you missed in the OP was that it was a 1/2 game, and the guy raised to 6, not bet 6. So he raised 4 on top of the 2 blind. That means the min raise would be another 4, to 10. Hence the confusion about whether it was a call or raise.

According to RROP, 2 red chips would be a call, since neither red chip alonewould cover the 6. But let's say the guy raised only 2 to 4 total. Then tossing out two reds without saying anything would be a raise, since one red chip alone covers the 4.
I actually did catch that part. The typical games here are 1/3 nl and a straddle is 6. Two red chips is a call facing a $6 bet regardless of previous action, I agree with you for the exact reasons you stated. I should've clarified, like you did, why it is a call though.
03-25-2014 , 11:43 AM
Where I play if you call $2 with a red and then it comes back around raised to $6 and throw out a second red, its a standard call unless you state otherwise.

      
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